Index

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?

A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is true?
A. LWAPP encrypts control traffic between the AP and the controller.
B. LWAPP encrypts user traffic with a x.509 certificate using AES-CCMP.
C. LWAPP encrypts both control traffic and user data.
D. When set to Layer 3, LWAPP uses a proprietary protocol to communicate with the Cisco Aironet APs.
Correct Answer: A Section: Exam A Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about RSTP topology changes?
A. Any change in the state of the port generates a TC BPDU.
B. Only nonedge ports moving to the forwarding state generate a TC BPDU.
C. If either an edge port or a nonedge port moves to a block state, then a TC BPDU is generated.
D. Only nonedge ports moving to the blocking state generate a TC BPDU.
E. Any loss of connectivity generates a TC BPDU.
Correct Answer: B Section: Exam A Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S2 contains the default configuration. Switches S1 and S3 both have had the command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst issued on them. What will be the result?

A. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to exchange traffic but neither will be able to exchange traffic with Switch S2
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change, Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic among themselves.
D. IEEE 802.1D and IEEE 802.1w are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.
Correct Answer: C Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst. Switch S3 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode mst. Switch S2 is running the IEEE 802.1D instance of Spanning-Tree. What will be the result?

A. IEEE 802.1w, and IEEE 802.1s are compatible. IEEE 802.1d is incompatible. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. Neither will be able to pass traffic to Switch S2.
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change, Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
D. IEEE 802.1d, IEEE 802.1w, and IEEE 802.1s are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.
Correct Answer: B Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which issue or set of issues does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) address?
A. reduction of processing in wireless controllers
B. distributed approach to authentication, encryption, and policy enforcement
C. provides security by blocking communication between access points and wireless clients
D. access point discovery, information exchange, and configuration
Correct Answer: D Section: Exam A Explanation
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about where trust boundaries should be established in a network?

A. Endpoint 1 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
B. Endpoint 1 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary. Endpoints 2 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
C. Endpoint 2 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
D. Endpoint 2 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary. Endpoints 1 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
E. Endpoints 1 and 2 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 3 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
F. Endpoints 2 and 3 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 1 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
Correct Answer: E Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about trust boundaries in the campus network? (Choose three.)

A. A device is trusted if it correctly classifies packets.
B. A device is trusted if it correctly declassifies packets.
C. The outermost trusted devices represent the trust boundary.
D. Classification and marking occur using 802.1ab QoS bits before reaching the trust boundary.
E. Network trust boundaries are automatically configured in IOS version 12.3 and later.
F. For scalability, classification should be done as close to the edge as possible.
Correct Answer: ACF Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The command spanning-tree guard root is configured on interface Gi0/0 on both switch S2 and S5. The global configuration command spanning-tree uplinkfast has been configured on both switch S2 and S5. The link between switch S4 and S5 fails. Will Host A be able to reach Host B?

A. Yes. Traffic can pass either from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1, or, from switch S6 to S5 to S2 to S1.
B. No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end at interface Gi 0/0.
C. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S5 and S2.
D. Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1.
E. No. Traffic will either pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end, or traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 and dead-end.
Correct Answer: D Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter has been installed and configured through the ADU on the PC. The Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) has been enabled during the installation and the icon appears in the system tray area in the lower right of the desktop. What is the significance of the icon?

A. It indicates that the radio of the client adapter is disabled.
B. It indicates that the client adapter is not associated to an access point or another client.
C. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, but the user is not EAP authenticated.
D. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is excellent or good.
E. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is fair.
F. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is poor.
Correct Answer: F Section: Exam A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which description correctly describes a MAC address flooding attack?
A. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the destination address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
B. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the source address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
C. The attacking device spoofs a destination MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
D. The attacking device spoofs a source MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
E. Frames with unique, invalid destination MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
F. Frames with unique, invalid source MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
Correct Answer: F Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. An attacker is connected to interface Fa0/11 on switch A-SW2 and attempts to establish a DHCP server for a man-in-middle attack. Which recommendation, if followed, would mitigate this type of attack?

A. All switch ports in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP trusted ports.
B. All switch ports in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
C. All switch ports connecting to hosts in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP trustednports.
D. All switch ports connecting to hosts in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
E. All switch ports in the Server Farm block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
F. All switch ports connecting to servers in the Server Farm block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
Correct Answer: D Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
A client is searching for an access point (AP). What is the correct process order that the client and access point go through to create a connection?
A. probe request/response, authentication request/response, association request/response
B. association request/response, authentication request/response, probe request/response
C. probe request/response, association request/response, authentication request/response
D. association request/response, probe request/response, authentication request/response Answer: A
Correct Answer: A Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two types of activities does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) define? (Choose two.)
A. access point certification and software control
B. compression and Layer 3 address mapping
C. Layer 3 addressing and distribution
D. packet encapsulation, fragmentation, and formatting
E. SNMP monitoring services

Correct Answer: AD Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) protocol is true?
A. The processing of 802.11 data and management protocols and access point capabilities is distributed between a lightweight access point and a centralized WLAN controller.
B. LWAPP aggregates radio management forward information and sends it to a wireless LAN solution engine.
C. LWAPP authenticates all access points in the subnet and establishes a secure communication channel with each of them.
D. LWAPP advertises its WDS capability and participates in electing the best WDS device for the wireless LAN.
Correct Answer: A Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which statement describes the function of a trust boundary?
A. Trust boundaries determine whether certain types of traffic can pass.
B. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where decisions about CoS markings on incoming packets are made.
C. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where QoS functionality begins and ends.
D. Trust boundaries are points in the network where Layer 2 CoS markings are converted to Layer 3 DSCP or IP precedence markings.
Correct Answer: B Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true about utilizing a data network for voice traffic?
A. Adding bandwidth to the data network is the primary solution to provide for the needs of voice traffic.
B. Because voice traffic volume cannot be calculated, network bandwidth requirements must be determined from an existing installation.
C. Voice traffic will require some form of QoS mechanisms in most networks.
D. Voice traffic will require some form of QoS implementation only in congested networks.
E. Network congestion must be totally eliminated to provide proper voice traffic performance.
Correct Answer: C Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch interface configuration command would automatically configure quality of service (QoS) for voice over IP (VoIP) within a QoS domain?

A. auto qos voip cisco-phone
B. mls qos trust
C. switchport priority extend cos 7
D. switchport priority extend trust
Correct Answer: A Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. Which Catalyst switch interface command would be used to cause the switch to instruct the phone to override the incoming CoS from the PC before forwarding the packet to the switch?

A. switchport priority extend trust
B. switchport priority extend cos 2
C. switchport priority extend cos 11
D. mls qos cos 2
E. mls qos cos 2 override
Correct Answer: B Section: Exam A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A

QUESTION 3
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?

A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured
on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?

A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP.
D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
E. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
F. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is true?
A. LWAPP encrypts control traffic between the AP and the controller.
B. LWAPP encrypts user traffic with a x.509 certificate using AES-CCMP.
C. LWAPP encrypts both control traffic and user data.
D. When set to Layer 3, LWAPP uses a proprietary protocol to communicate with the Cisco Aironet APs.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about RSTP topology changes?
A. Any change in the state of the port generates a TC BPDU.
B. Only nonedge ports moving to the forwarding state generate a TC BPDU.
C. If either an edge port or a nonedge port moves to a block state, then a TC BPDU is generated. TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
D. Only nonedge ports moving to the blocking state generate a TC BPDU.
E. Any loss of connectivity generates a TC BPDU.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S2 contains the default configuration. Switches S1 and S3 both have had the
command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst issued on them. What will be the result?

A. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to exchange traffic but neither will be able to exchange traffic with Switch S2
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change, Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic among themselves.
D. IEEE 802.1D and IEEE 802.1w are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst.
Switch S3 has been configured with the command spanning-tree mode mst. Switch S2 is running the IEEE A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
1D instance of Spanning-Tree. What will be the result?
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

A. IEEE 802.1w, and IEEE 802.1s are compatible. IEEE 802.1d is incompatible. Switches S1 and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. Neither will be able to pass traffic to Switch S2.
B. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 will be able to pass traffic between themselves. However, if there is a topology change, Switch S2 will not receive notification of the change.
D. IEEE 802.1d, IEEE 802.1w, and IEEE 802.1s are incompatible. All three switches must use the same standard or no traffic will pass between any of the switches.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which issue or set of issues does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) address?
A. reduction of processing in wireless controllers
B. distributed approach to authentication, encryption, and policy enforcement
C. provides security by blocking communication between access points and wireless clients
D. access point discovery, information exchange, and configuration
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about where trust boundaries should be established in a network?

A. Endpoint 1 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
B. Endpoint 1 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary. Endpoints 2 and 3 are acceptable places to TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside establish a trust boundary.
C. Endpoint 2 is the only acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
D. Endpoint 2 is the optimal place to establish a trust boundary. Endpoints 1 and 3 are acceptable places to establish a trust boundary.
E. Endpoints 1 and 2 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 3 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.
F. Endpoints 2 and 3 are optimal places to establish a trust boundary. Endpoint 1 is an acceptable place to establish a trust boundary.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about trust boundaries in the campus network?
(Choose three.)

A. A device is trusted if it correctly classifies packets.
B. A device is trusted if it correctly declassifies packets.
C. The outermost trusted devices represent the trust boundary.
D. Classification and marking occur using 802.1ab QoS bits before reaching the trust boundary.
E. Network trust boundaries are automatically configured in IOS version 12.3 and later.
F. For scalability, classification should be done as close to the edge as possible.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. The command spanning-tree guard root is configured on interface Gi0/0 on both
switch S2 and S5. The global configuration command spanning-tree uplinkfast has been configured on both
switch S2 and S5. The link between switch S4 and S5 fails. Will Host A be able to reach Host B?
TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

A. Yes. Traffic can pass either from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1, or, from switch S6 to S5 to S2 to S1.
B. No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end at interface Gi 0/0.
C. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S5 and S2.
D. Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1.
E. No. Traffic will either pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end, or traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 and dead-end.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter has been installed and configured
through the ADU on the PC. The Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) has been enabled during the installation and the icon appears in the system tray area in the lower right of the desktop. What is the significance of the icon?

A. It indicates that the radio of the client adapter is disabled.
B. It indicates that the client adapter is not associated to an access point or another client.
C. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, but the user is not EAP authenticated.
D. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is excellent or good.
E. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is fair.
F. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is poor.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which description correctly describes a MAC address flooding attack?
A. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the destination address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
B. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the source address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
C. The attacking device spoofs a destination MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
D. The attacking device spoofs a source MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
E. Frames with unique, invalid destination MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
F. Frames with unique, invalid source MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. An attacker is connected to interface Fa0/11 on switch A-SW2 and attempts to establish a DHCP server for a man-in-middle attack. Which recommendation, if followed, would mitigate this type of attack? TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam
http://www.TestInside.com Testinside

A. All switch ports in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP trusted ports.
B. All switch ports in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
C. All switch ports connecting to hosts in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP trusted ports.
D. All switch ports connecting to hosts in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
E. All switch ports in the Server Farm block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
F. All switch ports connecting to servers in the Server Farm block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A client is searching for an access point (AP). What is the correct process order that the client and
access point go through to create a connection?
A. probe request/response, authentication request/response, association request/response
B. association request/response, authentication request/response, probe request/response
C. probe request/response, association request/response, authentication request/response
D. association request/response, probe request/response, authentication request/response TestInside Help You Pass Any IT Exam http://www.TestInside.com Testinside
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Free practice questions for Cisco 642-812 exam.These questions are aimed at giving you an idea of the type of questions you can expect on the actual exam. You will get an idea of the level of knowledge each topic goes into but because these are simple web pages you will not see the interactive and performance based questions – those are available in the Cisco 642-812.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Certkiller uses layer 3 switches in the Core of their network. Which method of Layer 3 switching uses a forwarding information base (FIB)?
A. Topology-based switching
B. Demand-based switching
C. Route caching
D. Flow-based switching
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Layer 3 engine (essentially a router) maintains routing information, whether from static routes or dynamic routing protocols. Basically, the routing table is reformatted into an ordered list with the most specific route first, for each IP destination subnet in the table. The new format is called a Forwarding Information Base (FIB) and contains routing or forwarding information that the network prefix can reference. In other words, a route to 10.1.0.0/16 might be contained in the FIB, along with routes to 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.1.128/25, if those exist. Notice that these examples are increasingly more specific subnets. In the FIB, these would be ordered with the most specific, or longest match, first, followed by less specific subnets. When the switch receives a packet, it can easily examine the destination address and find the longest match entry in the FIB. The FIB also contains the next-hop address for each entry. When a longest match entry is found in the FIB, the Layer 3 next-hop address is found, too.
QUESTION 2
You need to design the VLAN scheme for the Certkiller network. Which two statements are true about best practices in VLAN design? (Select two)
A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer.
C. VLANs should be localized to a switch.
D. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.
E. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the distribution layer, uplinks from all access layer devices are aggregated, or come together. The
distribution layer switches must be capable of processing the total volume of traffic from all the connected
devices. These switches should have a port density of high-speed links to support the collection of access
layer switches.
VLANs and broadcast domains converge at the distribution layer, requiring routing,

filtering, and security. The switches at this layer must be capable of performing multilayer switching with
high throughput. Only certain Catalyst switch models can provide multilayer switching; be sure to
understand which ones can do this.
A switched environment offers the technology to overcome flat network limitations.
Switched networks can be subdivided into VLANs. By definition, a VLAN is a single broadcast domain. All
devices connected to the VLAN receive broadcasts from other VLAN members. However, devices
connected to a different VLAN will not receive those same broadcasts. (Naturally, VLAN members also

receive unicast packets directed toward them from other VLAN members.) A VLAN consists of defined members communicating as a logical network segment. In contrast, a physical segment consists of devices that must be connected to a physical cable segment. A VLAN can have connected members located anywhere in the campus network, as long as VLAN connectivity is provided between all members. Layer 2 switches are configured with a VLAN mapping and provide the logical connectivity between the VLAN members.
QUESTION 3
The Certkiller la network is shown below:

On the basis of the information provided in the exhibit above, which two sets of procedures are best practices for Layer 2 and 3 failover alignment? (Select two)
A. Configure the Certkiller 1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the Certkiller 2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
B. Configure the Certkiller 1 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and
110. Configure the Certkiller 2 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
C. Configure the Certkiller 2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the Certkiller 1 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
D. Configure the Certkiller 1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the Certkiller 2 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
E. Configure the Certkiller 1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and 120. Configure the Certkiller 2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and 110.
F. Configure the Certkiller 1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the Certkiller 2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Basically, each of the routers that provides redundancy for a given gateway address is assigned to a common HSRP group. One router is elected as the primary, or active, HSRP router, another is elected as the standby HSRP router, and all the others remain in the listen HSRP state. The routers exchange HSRP hello messages at regular intervals, so they can remain aware of each other’s existence, as well as that of the active router. HSRP election is based on a priority value (0 to 255) that is configured on each router in the group. By default, the priority is 100. The router with the highest priority value (255 is highest) becomes the active router for the group. If all router priorities are equal or set to the default value, the router with the highest IP address on the HSRP interface becomes the active router. To set the priority, use the following interface configuration command: Switch(config-if)# standby group priority priority When HSRP is configured on an interface, the router progresses through a series of states before becoming active. This forces a router to listen for others in a group and see where it fits into the pecking order. The HSRP state sequence is Disabled, Init, Listen, Speak, Standby, and, finally, Active. You can configure a router to preempt or immediately take over the active role if its priority is the highest at any time. Use the following interface configuration command to allow preemption: Switch(config-if)# standby group preempt
QUESTION 4
The Certkiller LAN switches are being configured to support the use of Dynamic VLANs. Which of the following are true of dynamic VLAN membership? (Select all that apply)
A. VLAN membership of a user always remains the same even when he/she is moved to another location.
B. VLAN membership of a user always changes when he/she is moved to another location.
C. Membership can be static or dynamic.
D. Membership can be static only.
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dynamic VLAN memberships are based on the users MAC address connected to the port. If you have VTP
server, a VTP database file, a VTP client switch, and a dynamic port; regardless of where your physical
location is, you can still remain in the same VLAN.
Incorrect
Answers:

B: This was true before the use of Dynamic VLAN membership, as VLANs were assigned to ports, not users.
D: VLAN memberships can be either static or dynamic.
QUESTION 5
The Certkiller LAN switches are being configured to support the use of Dynamic VLANs. What should be considered when implementing a dynamic VLAN solution? (Select two)
A. Each switch port is assigned to a specific VLAN.
B. Dynamic VLANs require a VLAN Membership Policy Server.
C. Devices are in the same VLAN regardless of which port they attach to.
D. Dynamic VLAN assignments are made through the command line interface.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With VLAN Membership Policy Server (VMPS), you can assign switch ports to VLANs dynamically, based on the source Media Access Control (MAC) address of the device connected to the port. When you move a host from a port on one switch in the network to a port on another switch in the network, the switch assigns the new port to the proper VLAN for that host dynamically. Note: There are two types of VLAN port configurations: static and dynamic. Incorrect Answers
A: In a static VLAN, the administrator assigns switch ports to the VLAN, and the association does not
change until the administrator changes the port assignment.
However, this is not the case of dynamic VLANs.

D: The Command Line Interface is not used for dynamic VLAN assignments.
Reference: Cisco Online, Configuring Dynamic Port VLAN Membership with VMPS

QUESTION 6
What is the preferred method of filtering bridged traffic within a VLAN?
A. Ethernet maps
B. Router ACLs
C. VLAN access maps
D. IP ACLs
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: VLAN ACLs or VLAN maps access-control all packets (bridged and routed). You can use VLAN maps to filter traffic between devices in the same VLAN. Each VLAN access map can consist of one or more map sequences, each sequence with a match clause and an action clause. The match clause specifies IP, IPX, or MAC ACLs for traffic filtering and the action clause specifies the action to be taken when a match occurs. When a flow matches a permit ACL entry, the associated action is taken and the flow is not checked against the remaining sequences. When a flow matches a deny ACL entry, it will be checked against the next ACL in the same sequence or the next sequence. If a flow does not match any ACL entry and at least one ACL is configured for that packet type, the packet is denied. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/ products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a008016
QUESTION 7
You are assigning VLANs to the ports of switch CK1 . What VLAN number value is an assigned to the default VLAN?
A. VLAN 1003
B. VLAN 1
C. VLAN ON
D. VLAN A
E. VLAN 0
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The default VLAN is VLAN 1. Although this VLAN can be modified, it can not be deleted from the switch.
The following VLANs are on by default for all Cisco Catalyst switches: VLAN 1 – Default VLAN VLAN 1002

-Default FDDI VLAN VLAN 1003 – Default Token Ring VLAN VLAN 1004 – Default FDDI Net VLAN VLAN 1005 – Default Token Ring Net VLAN Incorrect Answers: A: This is the default Token Ring VLAN that is installed in the switch IOS. It is seldom used.
C: ON is a VTP configuration mode, but is not a normal VLAN name.
D: Although any VLAN can be named VLAN A, it is not created by default.
E: Although in Cisco IOS the number 0 has significance (i.e. ethernet 0, console port 0, serial 0) in VLANs 1 is the default. VLAN 0 is an invalid VLAN and can not be used.
QUESTION 8
The VLANs in switch CK1 are being modified. Which of the following are updated in CK1 every time a VLAN is modified? (Select all that apply)
A. Configuration revision number
B. Configuration revision flag field
C. Configuration revision reset switch
D. Configuration revision database
E. None of the above.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For accountability reasons, every time a VLAN is modified the revision number changes, as does the
information in the configuration revision database (as that is where the VLAN information is stored).
Incorrect
Answers:
B, C: The configuration revision flag field, and the configuration revision reset switch don’t exist in this
context.

QUESTION 9
If you needed to transport traffic coming from multiple VLANs (connected between switches), and your CTO was insistent on using an open standard, which protocol would you use?
A. 802.11B
B. spanning-tree
C. 802.1Q
D. ISL
E. VTP
F. Q.921
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The act involved in the above question is trunking. The two trunking protocols in the answer choices are:
802.1Q and ISL. ISL is Cisco proprietary and IEEE 802.1Q is based on an open standard. When non-
Cisco switches are used along with Cisco switches and trunking is required, it is best to use the 802.1Q
encapsulation.
Incorrect
Answers:

A: This standard is used in wireless networking and has nothing to do with VLAN switching.
B: The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is used to prevent loops within a bridged network.
Each VLAN runs a separate instance of the STP and this is enabled by default.
D: This is the alternative Cisco proprietary method of trunking.
E: VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that manages the addition, deletion, and renaming of VLANs on a network-wide basis. It is not used to actually transport VLAN traffic.
F: This is an ISDN signaling standard and is not related with VLAN switching.
QUESTION 10
Under what circumstances should an administrator prefer local VLANs over end-to-end VLANs?
A. Eighty percent of traffic on the network is destined for Internet sites.
B. There are common sets of traffic filtering requirements for workgroups located in multiple buildings.
C. Eighty percent of a workgroup’s traffic is to the workgroup’s own local server.
D. Users are grouped into VLANs independent of physical location.
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: This geographic location can be as large as an entire building or as small as a single switch inside a wiring closet. In a geographic VLAN structure, it is typical to find 80 percent of the traffic remote to the user (server farms and so on) and 20 percent of the traffic local to the user (local server, printers, and so on). Reference: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (Cisco Press) page 93
QUESTION 11
What are some virtues of implementing end-to-end VLANs? (Choose two)
A. End-to-end VLANs are easy to manage.
B. Users are grouped into VLANs independent of a physical location.
C. Each VLAN has a common set of security and resource requirements for all members.
D. Resources are restricted to a single location.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In an end-to-end VLAN, users are grouped into VLANs independent of physical location and dependent on
group or job function.
Each VLAN has a common set of security requirements for all members.
Incorrect
Answers:

A: End to end VLANs are more difficult to manage than local VLANs, due to the physical distances that they can span.
D: In an end-to-end VLAN, network resources are generally distributed across the entire enterprise wide area network.
QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements is true about the 80/20 rule (Select all that apply)?
A. 20 percent of the traffic on a network segment should be local
B. no more than 20 percent of the network traffic should be able to move across a backbone.
C. no more than 80 percent of the network traffic should be able to move across a backbone.
D. 80 percent of the traffic on a network segment should be local
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The 80/20 rule in network design originated from the idea that most of the traffic should remain local to the LAN, since bandwidth is plentiful compared to WAN links, and a great deal of broadcast traffic that is evident at the LAN is not passed over the backbone. Note: With the availability of inexpensive bandwidth and centralized data centers, this rule appears to have become obsolete. In fact, most networks have taken on the 20/80 rules, as opposed to the legacy 80/20 rule.
QUESTION 13
Which two factors give merit to the 20/80 LAN traffic model? (Select two)
A. The Internet
B. Local servers
C. Server farms
D. Localized applications
E. More powerful desktop PC’s
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Remote services (server farms, Internet, etc.) are factors which contributed to increased backbone traffic.
Also consider:
This geographic location can be as large as an entire building or as small as a single switch inside a wiring
closet. In a geographic VLAN structure, it is typical to find 80 percent of the traffic remote to the user
(server farms and so on) and 20 percent of the traffic local to the user (local server, printers, and so on).
Reference: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (Cisco Press) page 93

QUESTION 14
The Certkiller LAN is becoming saturated with broadcasts and multicast traffic.
What could you do to help a network with many multicasts and broadcasts?
A. Creating smaller broadcast domains by implementing VLANs.
B. Separate nodes into different hubs.
C. Creating larger broadcast domains by implementing VLANs.
D. Separate nodes into different switches.
E. All of the above.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Controlling broadcast propagation throughout the network is important to reduce the amount of overhead associated with these frames. Routers, which operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model, provide broadcast domain segmentation for each interface. Switches can also provide broadcast domain segmentation using virtual LANs (VLANs). A VLAN is a group of switch ports, within a single or multiple switches, that is defined by the switch hardware and/or software as a single broadcast domain. A VLANs goal is to group devices connected to a switch into logical broadcast domains to control the effect that broadcasts have on other connected devices. A VLAN can be characterized as a logical network. Reference: Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (Cisco Press) page 8
QUESTION 15
In the three-layer hierarchical network design model; what’s associated with the access layer? (Select two)
A. optimized transport structure
B. high port density
C. boundary definition
D. data encryption
E. local VLANs
F. route summaries
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The access layer is the outermost layer, and it is composed of the least sophisticated network equipment.
The most important function of the access layer is high port density, since these devices connect the
individual end users. The access layers are also where VLANs are implemented, since VLANs are
assigned on a per-port basis.

QUESTION 16
In the three-layer hierarchical network design model, what’s associated with the core layer? (Select two)
A. Access control list
B. Data encryption
C. Optimized transport
D. Address aggregation
E. Packet switching
F. Boundary definition
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A hierarchical network design includes the following three layers: -The backbone (core) layer that provides optimal transport between sites -The distribution layer that provides policy-based connectivity -The local-access layer that provides workgroup/user access to the network The distribution layer of the network is the demarcation point between the access and core layers and helps to define and differentiate the core. The purpose of this layer is to provide boundary definition and is the place at which packet manipulation can take place. In the campus environment, the distribution layer can include several functions, such as the following: Address or area aggregation
1.
Departmental or workgroup access

2.
Broadcast/multicast domain definition

3.
Virtual LAN (VLAN) routing

4.
Any media transitions that need to occur

5.
Security The distribution layer can be summarized as the layer that provides policy-based connectivity Reference: www.alteridem.net/networking/idg4/idgbasic.htm
QUESTION 17
Two Certkiller switches are connected as shown below:

Configuration exhibit Please refer to the exhibit above. Given the partial configuration of the two Cisco Certkiller switches, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Select two)

A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
C. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
E. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that utilizes a special-purpose algorithm to discover physical loops in a network and effect a logical loop-free topology. STP creates a loop-free tree structure consisting of leaves and branches that span the entire Layer 2 network. The actual mechanics of how bridges communicate and how the STP algorithm works will be discussed at length in the following topics. Note that the terms bridge and switch are used interchangeably when discussing STP. In addition, unless otherwise indicated, connections between switches are assumed to be trunks. Load sharing can be accomplished using a couple of methods. The most common method of load sharing is through root bridge placement on a per-VLAN basis. This will distribute traffic for separate VLANs across separate paths to different root bridges. A separate method divides the bandwidth supplied by parallel trunks connecting switches. To avoid loops, STP normally blocks all but one parallel link between switches. Using load sharing, traffic can be divided between the links according to which VLAN the traffic belongs. Load sharing can be configured on trunk ports by using STP port priorities or STP path costs. For load sharing using STP port priorities, both load-sharing links must be connected to the same switch. For load sharing using STP path costs, each load-sharing link can be connected to the same switch or to two different switches. Load Sharing Using STP Port Priorities When two ports on the same switch form a loop, the STP port priority setting determines which port is enabled and which port is in a blocking state. The priorities on a parallel trunk port can be set so that the port carries all the traffic for a given VLAN. The trunk port with the higher priority (lower values) for a VLAN is forwarding traffic for that VLAN. The trunk port with the lower priority (higher values) for the same VLAN remains in a Blocking state for that VLAN. One trunk port sends or receives all traffic for the VLAN.
QUESTION 18
SIMULATION
Certkiller topology exhibit:
You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Certkiller .com is a large international company with offices on all continents. You work at the Chicago Office. Your boss at Certkiller .com, Miss Certkiller, has asked you to install a
Catalyst 3500 to provide for another 24 users. Your instructions are as follows:
*
install it in an IDF

*
extremely import to have the proper configuration of the Catalyst before it is placed into the product information

*
it should not participate in VTP

*
it should forward VTP advertisements that are received on trunk ports

*
all nontrunking interfaces, Fa0/1 to Fa0/24) should immediately to the forwarding state of the Spanning tree.

*
configure all Fast Ethernet ports (the user ports) such as they are nontrunking.

*
the fastEthernet interfaces 0/12 through 0/24 should be placed in VLAN 20
Explanation: Certkiller 1#conf t Certkiller 1(config)#vtp mode transparent Certkiller 1(config)#interface range fa0/1 – 24 Certkiller 1(config-if-range)#switchport mode access Certkiller 1(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast Certkiller 1(config)#interface range fa0/12 – 24 Certkiller 1(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 Certkiller 1(config-if-range)#end Certkiller 1# copy run start Spanning tree PortFast is a Catalyst feature that causes a switch or trunk port to enter the spanning tree Forwarding state immediately, bypassing the Listening and Learning states. IOS-based switches only use PortFast on access ports connected to end stations. When a device is connected to a port, the port normally enters the spanning tree Listening state. When the Forward Delay timer expires, the port enters the Learning state. When the Forward Delay timer expires a second time, the port is transitioned to the Forwarding or Blocking state. When PortFast is enabled on a switch or trunk port, the port is immediately transitioned to the Forwarding state. As soon as the switch detects the link, the port is transitioned to the Forwarding state (less than 2 seconds after the cable is plugged in). Certkiller 1(Config-if-range)#switchport mode access : Brings the interfaces into access mode Certkiller 1 (Config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast : Enables the PortFast on interface. Certkiller 1(Config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 20 : Makes the members of vlan 20
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
The following output was seen on a Certkiller switch: Study the exhibit carefully. The Certkiller user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem?

A. Certkiller 1(config)# vlan 10 Certkiller 1(config-vlan)# no shut
B. Certkiller 1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Certkiller 1(config-if)# switchport mode access Certkiller 1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
C. Certkiller 1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Certkiller 1(config-if)# switchport mode access
D. Certkiller 1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Certkiller 1(config-if)# no shut
E. Certkiller 1(config)# vlan 10 Certkiller 1(config-vlan)# state active

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: In Exhibit Operation Mode is down, it means interface is in down state. Just bring into up state using no shutdown command
QUESTION 20
You need make configuration changes to an existing layer 3 switch in the Certkiller network. On a multilayer Catalyst switch, which interface command is used to convert a Layer 3 interface to a Layer 2 interface?
A. switchport access vlan vlan-id
B. switchport
C. switchport mode access
D. no switchport
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The switchport command puts the port in Layer 2 mode. Then, you can use other switchport command
keywords to configure trunking, access VLANs, and so on.

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Through which way does Cisco WAAS advanced compression DRE improve on traditional LZ compression?
A. removing the transmission of previously-seen data
B. implementing a more aggressive, hardware-intensive version of the LZ compression algorithm
C. pre-positioning often-used file segments on the edge WAE appliances
D. comparing hashes of each file version to avoid unnecessary file synchronization

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the following tools, which two can be used to determine what percentage of WAN traffic will be optimized when you use a Cisco WAAS deployment? (Choose two.)
A. IP SLAs
B. NBAR
C. NetFlow
D. Tcpreplay

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which LAN traffic management feature is fully supported by Cisco WAAS?
A. intrusion detection system
B. QoS
C. NBAR
D. MPLS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
When WCCPv2 is running on a switch or router, what does it use to redirect traffic to a Cisco WAE?
A. Layer 4-7 inspection
B. GRE tunnels or Layer 2 direction
C. NBAR
D. MPLS tunnels or Layer 2 direction
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which method will most effectively provide management and monitoring failover for Cisco WAAS?
A. Use multiple Cisco WAE devices at the data center.
B. Use a primary and a secondary Central Manager.
C. Use multiple Cisco WAE devices at each client location.
D. Use a Cisco CDM at the data center and a Cisco CDM at the furthest client location.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
In a Cisco WAAS environment, which TCP connection establishment messages should you examine if your customer has sent you a TCP protocol trace and asked for your help in understanding why the WAE appliances are failing to negotiate the correct, optimized policy?
A. SYN and FIN
B. SYN and ACK
C. SYN and SYN ACK
D. ACK and SYN ACK

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Study the following exhibit carefully, your customer has installed its data center WAE as displayed Which configuration change can improve the performance of the WAE?

A. change to a two-arm configuration
B. use PBR redirection instead of WCCPv2
C. create a PortChannel between the WAE and the router
D. change to an off-router configuration

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Your customer’s service provider manages its WAN infrastructure. The customer would like to deploy Cisco WAAS to accelerate file services for a small number of branch offices, but the service provider manages the routers at each site and your customer’s terms of service prohibit the customer from customizing router configurations. Which interception method will you recommend?
A. PBR
B. ACE
C. WCCPv2
D. inline card

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9
Which two options correctly identify the WAE file services integration modes available in Cisco WAAS? (Choose two.)
A. transparent, in which the WAE appears as a node on the remote office LAN http://www.testkiller.com
B. transparent, in which the WAE does not appear as a node on the remote office LAN
C. non-transparent, in which the WAE appears as a node on the remote office LAN
D. non-transparent, in which the WAE does not appear as a node on the remote office LAN

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What is the function of the Catalyst 6500 ACE module in a Cisco WAAS solution?
A. to perform application acceleration functions for CIFS applications
B. to provide interception and load-balancing of WAE appliances in the data center
C. to support load balancing of large numbers of WAE appliances when deployed with WCCPv2
D. to provide WAN optimization capabilities in the data center

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three are high-availability Cisco WAE solutions for a branch office? (Choose three.)
A. PBR
B. WCCP
C. firewall load-balancing Cisco WAE devices
D. multiple Cisco WAE devices with inline cards

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Your customer has purchased multiple Cisco WAE appliances, but does not want to dedicate one WAE for management purposes only. How would you advise this customer?
A. There must be at least one Central Manager available for configuration and management tasks.
B. The data center WAE can be used for both the Central Manager and Application Accelerator roles.
C. There is no need for a dedicated Central Manager; all configuration tasks can be performed on the application accelerators using the WAE device CLI and GUI.
D. If one of the WAE appliances is configured as the Central Manager, then later, after all application accelerators are registered and on line, the Central Manager WAE can be reconfigured as an application accelerator.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which three characteristics are provided by Cisco WAAS to enable the consolidation of infrastructure from remote offices into the data center? (Choose three.)
A. policy-based configuration
B. auto-discovery of CIFS servers
C. transparent integration into existing networks
D. encapsulation of traffic between WAE appliances in GRE tunnels

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
In order to ensure the files are not stale, how often is the Cisco WAE running the edge file service able to cache previously-seen files?
A. every time the file is modified
B. every time the file is opened
C. according to a user-specified schedule
D. every hour

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
When you size a Cisco WAAS solution, you should assume that how many of the total number of concurrent TCP connections per user will be optimized?
A. 1-2
B. 4-7
C. 14-20
D. 25-40

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
The following diagram displays your customer’s edge WAE configuration.

Which WCCPv2 interception configuration can be applied to the Serial0 interface?
A. Redirect out / service group 61
B. Redirect in / service group 62
C. Redirect out / service group 62
D. Redirect in / service group 61

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Refer to the following items, which high-availability method is used with inline interception?
A. WCCPv2
B. fail-to-wire
C. load balancing
D. load balancing with the ACE module
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
When using PBR, what do you need to configure to enable failover?
A. QoS
B. MPLS
C. IP SLAs
D. NetFlow

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
One of your customers would like to use Active Directory to manage authentication for WAE administrative users. How to configure authentication in the Cisco WAAS Central Manager?
A. Configure Active Directory as the primary login method.
B. Configure TACACS+ services on the Active Directory server and set TACACS+ as the primary login method.
C. Configure LDAP services on the Active Directory server and set LDAP as the primary login method.
D. Configure RADIUS services on the Active Directory server and set RADIUS as the primary login method.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Through which way does Cisco WAAS mark traffic so that network devices can apply QoS?
A. QoS settings cannot be controlled in Cisco WAAS
B. the WCCP options in the Central Manager
C. the DSCP options in the traffic classifier configuration
D. the DSCP options in the application definition

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
What are three benefits of using the Cisco WAE file blocking feature? (Choose three.)
A. eliminates data redundancy
B. reduces the use of network resources
C. minimizes the transfer of unsanctioned data D. controls which file types are stored on the data center file server

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
After configuring a Cisco WAAS deployment using WCCPv2, you find that you can successfully ping a
data center server from a workstation in the branch office. However, when you attempt to start one of the
optimized applications, the application cannot communicate with the server.
What is the most likely cause?

A. There is insufficient disk space on either the edge or core WAE.
B. You configured half-duplex mode on the WAE interfaces.
C. You configured autonegotiate duplex mode on the WAE interfaces.
D. You deployed the WAE on the same subnet as the users or servers.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer plans to deploy the edge WAE appliances in an off-path, two-arm configuration. The WAE appliances are connected to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches and use WCCPv2 for traffic interception. The customer wants to minimize the latency added by interception. The customer also wants to know if Layer 2 redirection, rather than GRE tunnels, will improve performance.
What should you tell your customer?

A. Layer 2 redirection can be used only in in-path configurations.
B. Layer 2 redirection can be used only in one-arm configurations.
C. Layer 2 redirection can be used in the customer configuration.
D. GRE tunnels provide better performance than Layer 2 redirection.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
When implementing Windows authentication for WAE management, what is the maximum allowable time skew between each WAE and the Windows domain controller?
A. 1 second
B. 5 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Your customer plans to implement Cisco WAAS using four WAE appliances in a load-balanced configuration. Which feature must be supported on the switches to which the WAE appliances are attached?
A. redirect exclusion
B. Layer 2 redirection
C. WCCPv2
D. WCCPv2 or PBR

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Your customer has deployed Cisco WAAS using ACE for traffic interception. The customer reports that traffic is not being optimized. Which command would you use to troubleshoot network interception?
A. WAE-CORE# show wccp routers
B. WAE-CORE# show ip access-lists
C. ACE/Admin# show wccp routers
D. ACE/Admin# show rserver detail
E. router# show wccp services

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible reasons the CORE1 WAE might be displayed as “Offline”? (Choose two.)

A. The WAE is powered off.
B. The HTTPS service is disabled.
C. The Central Manager service is disabled.
D. The WAE is configured in the same VLAN as the server nodes.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Your customer reports that traffic has never been received by the remote device after deploying Cisco WAAS using WCCPv2 in an off-path configuration. Which two parameters should you verify? (Choose two.)
A. IP SLAs
B. WAE subnet
C. router IP address
D. routing configuration
E. service group redirection

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. This partial listing shows output from the show tfo connection summary command. Given this output, which statement is correct?

A. The local WAE policy was configured for LZ compression only; the remote WAE policy was configured for full optimization.
B. The local WAE policy was configured for LZ compression and TFO optimization; the remote WAE policy was configured for LZ compression only.
C. Both the local and remote WAE policies were configured for LZ compression only.
D. Both the local and remote WAE policies were configured for LZ compression and TFO optimization, but only LZ compression was applied.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You have configured a Central Manager WAE cluster for your customer. After a technician accidentally unplugs the power cord from the primary Central Manager WAE, the network administrator calls you to complain that the standby Central Manager WAE did not automatically assume the primary role. What should you tell this administrator?
A. You must manually initiate failover and fallback processes on the WAE.
B. You should verify that the datafeed.pollrate setting is configured properly.
C. You must manually copy the Central Manager database to the standby Central Manager WAE.
D. You should make sure the two Central Manager WAE appliances are on the same subnet.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
When must WCCPv2 redirect exclusion be configured on the routers?
A. when redirect in is used on any interface
B. when redirect in is used on the LAN interface only
C. when redirect in is used on the WAN interface only
D. when redirect out is used on any interface
E. when redirect out is used on the LAN interface only
F. when redirect out is used on the WAN interface only

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
How many IP addresses are required for an in-line card in a redundant, serially clustered configuration?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. four

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12
Which two symptoms would you expect to observe in a TCP trace if a Cisco WAE that was optimizing connections fails? (Choose two.)
A. The receiving node receives TCP segments with invalid sequence numbers and resets the connection.
B. The secondary WAE takes over the connection and the receiving node sees nothing.
C. The receiving node continues normally because it has a session to the originating node.
D. All optimized TCP connections handled by that WAE are reset.
E. All optimized TCP connections are taken over by the receiving node.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
How can you verify that the WAE has joined a Microsoft Windows domain correctly?
A. Execute the show windows-domain command on the WAE.
B. Click the Show Authentication Status button in Central Manager.
C. Use the Windows nbtstat command.
D. Use the Windows netstat command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows the result of executing the show wccp services configuration. What conclusion can you draw from this result?

A. The configuration is valid.
B. The configuration is valid for an in-line deployment only.
C. The configuration is valid if a redirect exclude directive has been configured correctly.
D. The configuration is not valid.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
In a Cisco WAAS deployment, what should you check first if your customer is reporting poor performance across all optimized applications?
A. Verify that full duplex is configured on all interfaces.
B. Verify that only one Central Manager WAE is set to active.
C. Verify that PBR has a route map for each direction of traffic flow.
D. Verify that WCCP is configured with one service group in the path of each direction of traffic flow.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Your customer is using firewalls. What must be permitted to pass through firewalls in order to allow WAE autodiscovery?
A. TCP SYN-ACK with data
B. TCPoptions
C. TCP port 139
D. TCP port 445

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Your customer has configured each Cisco WAE to belong to multiple device groups for monitoring purposes. However, the customer wants to ensure that the policies are applied to the device from one specific device group. What should you do?
A. You should configure an explicit policy device group.
B. You should configure the other device groups as monitoring-only.
C. You should rejoin the WAE to the desired device group.
D. You must remove the WAE from all other device groups.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
How do you access the WAE Central Manager GUI?
A. http://(ip_addr_of_WAE)
B. https://(ip_addr_of_WAE):443
C. https://(ip_addr_of_WAE):8080
D. https://(ip_addr_of_WAE):8443

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
How many baseline device groups can be configured for the acceleration feature set?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. as many as needed

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
TCP options are added to which TCP connection establishment messages during Cisco WAAS autodiscovery?
A. ACK and SYN-ACK
B. SYN and ACK
C. SYN and SYN-ACK
D. SYN and RST

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Exhibit:

You work as an engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. After completing the initial setup on
the Central Manager WAE, Certkiller .com executed the commands shown in the exhibit to complete the
setup. The customer can’t access the Central Manager GUI.
What happened?

A. The customer forgot to issue the cms enable command
B. The customer forgot to reload the WAE after setting the Central Manager Role
C. The customer forgot to specify the IP Address of the secondary Central Manager WAE
D. The customer forgot to issue the Central-manager address command

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You have configure a Central Manager WAE cluster for Certkiller .com. After a technician accidentally unplugs the power cord from the primary Central Manager WAE, the network administrator calls you to complain that the standby Central Manager WAE did not automatically assume the primary role. What should you tell this administrator?
A. You must manually copy the Central Manager database to the standby Central Manager WAE
B. You should verify that the detafeed.pollrate setting is configured properly
C. You should make sure the two Central Manager WAE appliance are on the same subnet
D. You must manually initiate failover and fallback processes on the WAE

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
The command show tfo accelerators displays what?
A. Per-applications optimization statistics
B. Whether accelerator services are under load
C. Which optimizations are applied to each connection
D. The number of optimized connections

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Exhibit:

You work as an engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. The exhibit shows the result of executing the show wccp services configuration. What conclusion can you draw from this result?
A. The configuration is not valid
B. The configuration is valid
C. The configuration is valid if a redirect exclude directive has been configured correctly
D. The configuration is valid for an in-line deployment only

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
TCP options are added to which TCP connection establishment manages during Cisco WAAS autodiscovery?
A. ACK and SYN-ACK
B. SYN and SYN-ACK
C. SYN and ACK
D. SYN and RST

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Certkiller .com has deployed Cisco WAAS using ACE for traffic interception. The customer reports that traffic is not being optimized. Which command would you use to troubleshoot network interception?
A. WAE-CORE#show ip access-lists
B. WAE-CORE#show wccp routers
C. ACE/Admin#show rserver detail
D. Router# show wccp services

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7
Certkiller .com implemented Cisco WAAS several months ago using WCCPv2. Yesterday, the customer implemented an asymmetric routing configuration and today the customer called to complain that Cisco WAAS is no longer optimizing connections properly. Which command would you use to troubleshoot this situation?
A. show wccp routers
B. show ip access-lists
C. show service-policy
D. show route-map

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Exhibit:

You work as an engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. This partial listing shows output from the show tfo connection summary command. given this output, which statement is correct?
A. Both the local and remote WAE policies were configured for LZ compression and TFO optimization, but only LZ compression was applied
B. The local WAE policy was configured for LZ compression only; the remote WAE policy was configured for full optimization
C. The local WAE policy was configured for LZ compression and TFO optimization; the remote WAE policy was configured for LZ compression only
D. Both the local and remote WAE policies were configured for LZ compression only

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
The Cisco WAAS design for Certkiller .com calls for the Central Manager to be deployed on the core WAE,
which is a Cisco WAE-612 with 2-GB RAM. The customer initially configured the WAE as an application
accelerator and then issued then device mode central-manager command to enable Central Manager
service. The customer reports that the WAE is no longer accelerating traffic.
What is the problem?

A. Central Manager and application accelerator can’t be deployed on the same WAE
B. At least 4 GB of RAM must be installed for the WAE to serve as both Central Manager and application accelerator
C. The device mode central-manager command must be issued before the device mode application-accelerator command
D. Central Manager is consuming too much CPU time on the WAE. The Central Manager service should be implemented on a less-utilized edge WAE
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two symptoms would you expect to observe in a TCP trace if a Cisco WAE that was optimizing connections fails? (Choose two.)
A. The secondary WAE takes over the connection and the receiving node sees nothing
B. The receiving node receives TCP segments with invalid sequence numbers and resets the connection
C. The receiving node continues normally because it has a session to the originating node
D. All optimized TCP connections handled by that WAE are reset
E. All optimized TCP connections are taken over by the receiving node

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Certkiller .com plans to implement Cisco WAAS using four WAE appliances in a load-balanced configuration. Which feature must be supported on the switches to which the WAE appliances are attached?
A. Redirect exclusion
B. WCCPv2 or PBR
C. WCCPv2
D. Layer 2 redirection

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Exhibit:

You work as an engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. Certkiller .com has deployed a WAE in the datacenter. The servers that are being optimized are on subnet 10.1.2.0/24 and the WAE has
been configured with the IP Address 10.1.2.50. The customer has observed that routing loops have
resulted from this configuration.
How should the customer fix the problem?

A. Configure a WCCPv2 redirect exclude directive
B. Configure a PBR access lists to exclude the WAE IP Address
C. Correct the configuration of the WCCPv2 service groups
D. Redeploy the WAE on the a different subnet or VLAN subinterface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
With Cisco WAAS, which two WCCPv2 service groups are used to make up the TCP Promiscuous service group? (Choose two.)
A. 90
B. 61
C. 89
D. 62
E. 60

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Exhibit:

You work as an engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. Six months after deploying a Cisco WAAS solution, Certkiller .com reports that CIFS performance has decreased at one of the branch offices. To troubleshoot the problem, you run the show tfo accelerators command on the edge WAE.. Based on the output displayed from the CIFS accelerator service, what is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The CIFS accelerator service failed about four hours ago
B. The CIFS optimization policy is not being negotiated properly
C. The CIFS accelerator service is experiencing an overload condition
D. The CIFS accelerator service is functioning properly and is not overloaded

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
How many IP Addresses are required for an in-line card in a redundant, serially clustered configuration?
A. Four
B. One
C. Two
D. None

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which two options are available for Cisco WAAS file-services integration? (Choose two.)
A. Non-transparent appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
B. Transparent appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
C. Transparent not appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
D. Nontransparent not appearing as a node on the remote office LAN
E. Transparent and nontransparent appearing as a node on the remote office LAN

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Certkiller .com is using firewalls. What must be permitted to pass through firewalls in order to allow WAE autodiscovery?
A. TCP port 445
B. TCP port 139
C. TCP SYN-ACK with data
D. TCPoptions

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Exhibit: You work as an engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. Certkiller .com plans to deploy the edge WAE appliances in an off-path, two-arm configuration. The WAE appliances are connected to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches and use WCCPv2 for traffic interception. The customers wants to minimize the latency added by interception. The customer also wants to know if Layer 2 redirection, rather than GRE tunnels, will improve performance. What should you tell Certkiller .com?

A. Layer 2 redirection can be used only in one-arm configurations
B. Layer 2 redirection can be used only in in-path configurations
C. Layer 2 redirection can be used in the customer configuration
D. GRE tunnels provide better performance than Layer 2 redirection

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Exhibit: You work as an engineer at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. The diagram illustrates the Cisco WAAS configuration for Certkiller .com. Which WCCPv2 interception configuration should you apply to interface serial0?

A. Redirect out / service group 61
B. Redirect out / service group 62
C. Redirect in / service group 61
D. Redirect in / service group 62

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which three must be configured on the edge WAE when you configure an edge print queue? (Choose three.)
A. WAFS edge service
B. Print Administration user
C. Central Manager Service
D. EPM Policy
E. Device URI
F. Print Driver repository

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
The NAS is configured to autogenerate an IP address pool of 30 subnets with a netmask of /30, beginning at address 192.168.10.0. Which IP address is leased to the end-user host on the second subnet?
A. 192.168.10.4
B. 192.168.10.5
C. 192.168.10.6
D. 192.168.10.7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which default administrator group has delete permissions?
A. admin
B. help-desk
C. add-edit
D. full-control

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What is the result when the condition statement in a Cisco NAA check for required software evaluates to false on a client machine?
A. The required software is automatically downloaded to the user device.
B. The required software is made available after the user is quarantined.
C. The user is put in the unauthenticated role and the software is considered missing.
D. The user is placed in the temporary role and the software is made available.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which three components comprise a Cisco NAC Appliance solution? (Choose three.)
A. a NAC-enabled Cisco router
B. a Linux server for in-band or out-of-band network admission control
C. a Linux server for centralized management of network admission servers
D. a Cisco router to provide VPN services
E. a read-only client operating on an endpoint device
F. a NAC-enabled Cisco switch

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center

QUESTION 6
Drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 7
When configuring the Cisco NAM to implement Cisco NAA requirement checking on client machines, what is the next step after configuring checks and rules?
A. retrieve updates
B. require the use of the Cisco NAA
C. configure session timeout and traffic policies
D. map rules to requirement
E. configure requirements

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. When logging in to a Cisco NAC Appliance solution, an end user is prompted for a username, password, and provider. What should be entered in the Provider drop-down field shown in the exhibit?

A. the authenticating NAS
B. the authorizing NAM
C. the name of the ISP
D. the external authenticating server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What are the two types of traffic policies that apply to user roles? (Choose two.)
A. IP-based
B. peer-based
C. host-based
D. manager-based
E. server-based
F. VLAN-based

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
After you implement a network scan and view the report, you notice that a plug-in did not access any of its dependent plug-ins. What did you forget to do?
A. enable the Dependent Plug-in check box on the General Tab form
B. configure dependent plug-in support when you mapped the Nessus scan check to the Nessus plug-in rule
C. install dependent plug-ins when you updated the Cisco NAC Appliance plug-in library
D. load the dependent plug-ins for that plug-in in the Plug-in Updates form

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11
A client has a network with wireless and wired users. The wired users run mission-critical bandwidth-sensitive applications. The wireless users access web-based support portals within the central office.
Given only this information, which Cisco NAC Appliance solution would provide the most fault-tolerant option for this client?
A. one Cisco NAM and one in-band highly available Cisco NAS cluster
B. one load-balanced highly available Cisco NAM cluster and one out-of-band highly available Cisco NAS cluster
C. one highly available Cisco NAM cluster, one out-of-band highly available Cisco NAS cluster, and one in-band Cisco NAS
D. one highly available Cisco NAM cluster and one in-band highly available Cisco NAS cluster

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Based on the Boolean order of precedence, how would Cisco NAC Appliance evaluate the following rule?
AdAwareLogRecent&(NorAVProcessIsActiveymAVProcessIsActive)
A. (The Norton Antivirus is active and there is a recent Ad Aware log entry) or (the Symantec antivirus process is active).
B. There is a recent Ad Aware log entry, the Norton Antivirus is active, and the Symantec antivirus process is active.
C. (Either the Norton Antivirus or the Symantec antivirus process is active) and (there is a recent Ad Aware log entry).
D. There is a recent Ad Aware log entry or the Norton Antivirus is active, or the Symantec antivirus process is active.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
How do you ensure that the Cisco NAS has the most recent version of the Cisco NAA to install on user devices?
A. Each time the Cisco NAA is upgraded, the Cisco NAM automatically downloads the new version of Cisco NAA to all Cisco NAS servers.
B. From the Cisco NAS Web Admin Console, enable Cisco NAA autoupdate on the Administration > Software Update form.
C. The Cisco NAA is upgraded directly to each Cisco NAS using the Upgrade Server form available on the Cisco NAM web console GUI.
D. Configure the Cisco NAS by selecting which Cisco NAA to upgrade in the Cisco NAA Upgrade form.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
LAB A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 15
A search of available switches has been performed and a list of switches is presented. Which two SNMP attributes need to match what is configured in the Cisco switch profile for a listed switch to be added to the Cisco NAM? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP read community string
B. SNMP write community string
C. SNMP read version
D. SNMP write version
E. SNMP trap

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
In a Cisco NAC Appliance Windows Active Directory SSO deployment, what are the cached credentials and Kerberos TGT from the client-machine Windows login used for?
A. They are used to validate the user with the Cisco NAS.
B. They are used to validate the user authentication with the backend Windows Active Directory server.
C. They are used to validate user access with the Cisco NAA.
D. They are used to validate the user authentication and access with the Cisco NAM.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 18
What must you check on the switches for an out-of-band Cisco NAC Appliance deployment?
A. The Cisco or non-Cisco switch must support port security and SNMPv2 or SNMPv3.
B. The Cisco switch must support VACL (VLAN ACL).
C. If you have stacked Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switches, you are using Cisco IOS Release 12.1(25) SEC or above.
D. The Cisco switch must use at least the minimum supported version of Cisco IOS or Catalyst OS supporting mac-notification or linkup-linkdown SNMP traps.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
When using Windows Active Directory Single-Sign-ON (SSO), the Cisco NAA on the client machine will ask the client machine for a Service Ticket (ST) with which username to communicate with the Cisco NAS?
A. the Cisco NAA username
B. the Microsoft Windows Active Directory server username
C. the Cisco NAS username
D. the client username

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A small public library wants to implement network admission control for their public wireless network and their internal wired network. Their network contains switches from a variety of vendors. Which Cisco NAC Appliance solution would best suit this client?
A. an out-of-band Cisco NAS deployment with a Cisco NAM cluster
B. a combination of an out-of-band and an in-band Cisco NAS deployment with a Cisco NAM cluster
C. an in-band Cisco NAS deployment and a Cisco NAM
D. a hybrid solution using in-band Cisco NAS for the wireless and out-of-band Cisco NAS for the wired deployment

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
How does the Cisco NAM determine the presence of vulnerability without using the Cisco NAA on the client machine?
A. The end-user Cisco Trust Agent capability summary message does not match the defined role-based security policy requirement on the Cisco NAM.
B. The Cisco NAM receives a Cisco Security Agent vulnerability alert from the Cisco NAS
C. The Nessus network scan report matches a defined role-based or OS-based vulnerability on the Cisco NAM
D. The Cisco NAM will perform an agentless scan and interpret the results to determine if the client machines is vulnerable

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Exhibit:

Your work as an network engineer at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. From a Drop-Down menu, profiles are applied to each managed port. Before a profile can be applied, where are the client access and authentication VLAN profile parameters to configured?
A. Controlled VLAN profile
B. Access Control profile
C. Switch Profile
D. VLAN Mapping Profile
E. Port Profile

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What is the local user account primarily used for?
A. For users who acquire temporary access or the normal login role
B. For users who acquire the quarantine access role
C. For Administrator access D. For testing or for guest user accounts

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which high-availability option is supported by a Cisco NAC Appliance Solution?
A. Cisco NAA Backup Server
B. Cisco NAS Backup Network Scanning
C. Cisco NAM and Cisco NAS redundancy
D. Cisco NAM and Cisco NAS load Balancing

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which features must be configured to ensure that users can perform update and remediation?
A. Temporary Roles and Quarantines roles
B. Nessus Plug-ins and Antivirus Rules
C. Temporary and Quarantine network Remediation timer
D. Session timeouts and traffic controls policies

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What is the local user account primarily used for?
A. For testing or for guest user accounts
B. For users who acquire temporary access or the normal login role
C. For users who acquire the quarantine access role
D. For Administrator access

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, is interested in Cisco
roles.
Match the descriptions with the appropriate roles.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8

What is an exempt device?
A. A device that does not require posture assessment each time it logs in to the network
B. A device that does not have to go through certification while its MAC address remains on the certified list
C. A multiuser device that is configured as a floating device so that recertification is not required at each login
D. A single or multiuser device that is only recertified when another user of the device logs out and accesses the network

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two functions can a Cisco NAC Appliance Agent be configured to perform? (Choose two.)
A. Check for up-to-date antivirus and antispam files
B. Detect the presence of worms and viruses before permitting network access to an end user
C. Perform registry, service and application checks
D. Initiate periodic Virus Scans
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
In a Cisco NAM high-availability configuration, when does the secondary Cisco NAM take over?
A. When the timeout value is exceeded during data-mirroring activities
B. When the IP-based heartbeat signal fails to be transmitted and received within a certain time period
C. When the UDP heartbeat signal fails to be transmitted on the serial heartbeat connection between failover peers
D. When the UDP heartbeat signal is not transmitted and received within a certain time period

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Where is a local user validated?
A. At the authentication Server
B. At the Cisco NAA
C. At the Cisco NAS
D. At the Cisco NAM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
In Cisco NAC Appliance Solutions, which statements is correct regarding devices on the certified list?
A. Device manually added to the certified device list are automatically deleted when the device list-clearing timer expires
B. Devices that pass the Cisco NAA requirements are automatically added to the exempt device list
C. To remove an exempt device from the certified list, click the clear Certified Device Button
D. A device is not required to be rescanned at the next login as long as it MAC address is in the certified list

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
How do you ensure that the Cisco NAS has the most recent version of the Cisco NAA to install on user devices?
A. From the Cisco NAS web Admin Console, enable Cisco NAA autoupdate on the Administration->Software Update Form
B. The Cisco NAA is upgraded directly to each Cisco NAS using the upgrade server form available on the Cisco NAM web console GUI
C. Configure the Cisco NAS by selecting which Cisco NAA to upgrade in the Cisco NAA Upgrade form
D. Each Time the Cisco NAA is upgraded, the Cisco NAM automatically download the new version of Cisco NAA to all Cisco NAS Servers

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
When trying to restrict a guest-role end user to a host that has multiple or dynamic IP Addresses; the administrator would create which type of policy?
A. Address-based inclusion Policy
B. Server-based exemption Policy
C. Host-based traffic Control Policy
D. IP-based Access Policy

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Custom login pages can be targeted to specific groups of end users. Which three target methods are supported by Cisco NAC Appliance? (Choose three.)
A. Operating System
B. Subnet
C. Network Access Method
D. End-user Role
E. VLAN ID
F. Device Type

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When configuring an in-band central-deployment virtual gateway on the Cisco NAS, what must be configured to ensure that the interface traffic on the same Layer 2 switch does not create a loop?
A. In the network form, select the passthrough VLAN ID option for the untrusted and trusted management VLAN
B. Configure the first switch downstream of the Cisco NAS with Spanning Tree
C. In the managed subnet form, enter the IP address that is assigned to the Cisco NAS to route the subnet, not the calculated network address
D. In the VLAN mapping form, map the untrusted interface VLAN ID to a trusted network VLAN ID
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
In an out-of-band Cisco NAC Appliance high-availability deployment, why must port security be disabled between the switch interfaces to which the Cisco NAS and Cisco NAM are connected?
A. Port Security interfaces with SNMP message delivery between Cisco NAM failover peers
B. Port Security interfaces with UDP heartbeat signals
C. Port Security creates time-based latency, causing erratic SSL communication
D. Port Security can interface with Cisco NAS high availability and DHCP delivery

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which interface is always used by Cisco NAM failover peers to support inter-peer connections?
A. The eth1 interface
B. The Serial Connection
C. The Second Ethernet Port
D. The eth0 Interface

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What does the secondary Cisco NAM do after it reboots from its initial configuration?
A. Switches to active mode, enabling load sharing with the primary Cisco NAM
B. Automatically sends a message to all Cisco NAS Servers, identifying itself as the secondary Cisco NAM
C. Automatically Synchronizes its database with the primary Cisco NAM
D. Takes over as the active Cisco NAM if the secondary Cisco NAM has a higher priority

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which NAC Appliance Component performs network scanning?
A. Cisco NAC Appliance Agent
B. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
C. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager D. Cisco NAC Trust Agent

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
When users try to access the voice-mail system, they hear a fast busy tone. In which two ways does the configuration need to be modified in order to allow calls to reach Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two)
Exhibit:

A. The dial peer needs to be a POTS dial peer and needs to use a fully qualified E.164 number.
B. The command dtmf-relay sip-notify needs to be added to the dial peer.
C. The vad statement needs to be removed.
D. The command session protocol sipv2 needs to be added to the dial peer.
E. The codec type statement needs to be removed.
F. The command codec transparent needs to be added to the dial peer.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which four of the following are required to be defined when configuring a SIP trunk to Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose four.)
A. Presence Group
B. Device Name
C. Location
D. SIP Trunk Security Profile
E. Device Pool
F. Packet Capture Mode
G. SIP Profile
H. DTMF Signal Method

Correct Answer: BDEG Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two of the following protocols can be used to integrate Cisco Unity Connection with Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. H.323
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. SCCP
E. OSPF
F. BGP

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three components are necessary to import users into Cisco Unity Express from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI administrator username and password
B. IP address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express device
C. end users configured in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express database
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web administrator user login
E. JTAPI username and password

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of the following methods can be used to view a VPIM trace on the Cisco Unity Express module?
A. GUI
B. CLI
C. GUI and CLI
D. Cisco Unified RTMT

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
A user is attempting to enter a Call Forward All destination of 00497473263, but after the digit “9” is entered, the system believes that all the digits have been entered and that the Call Forward All destination is 0049. Which system component is most likely misconfigured?
A. Gateway that is used for Call Forward All calls
B. Route List that is used for PSTN calls
C. Route Group that is used for PSTN calls
D. Route Pattern that is used for PSTN calls
E. The IP phone does not have access to the partition that is used for PSTN calls
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
When configuring Cisco Unity Connection for LDAP integration, where is the Cisco DirSync service activated for Cisco Unity Connection?
Exhibit:

A. Cisco Unity Connection Administration
B. Cisco Unified Serviceability
C. Cisco Unified OS Administration
D. Cisco Unity Connection Administration
E. Cisco Unity Connection Serviceability
F. Disaster Recovery System

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
The CEO of a company does not want external callers to be able to dial him directly through the Cisco Unity Connection directory search. Which of the following methods is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Do not activate the CEO as a Cisco Unity Connection subscriber.
B. Configure a directory call handler that blocks all transfers.
C. Configure a directory handler that uses a partition and calling search space to allow calls to everyone except to the CEO.
D. Use the preconfigured partition and calling search space. No other configuration is necessary.
E. Configure a restricted partition and assign it to the CEO. Create a directory call handler for external users with a search scope that does not contain the CEO partition.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is required on the Cisco Unified Presence server, when integrating Cisco Unified Presence with Cisco Unity Connection, in order for users to be allowed to view, play, sort, and delete voicemail messages?
A. H.323 trunk
B. XMPP connection
C. SIP trunk
D. AXL configuration
E. Voicemail Profile

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which tool is used to help determine the scale and performance of a Cisco Unified Presence multi-cluster deployment?
A. Presence User Profile
B. Presence Capacity Planning Tool
C. Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool
D. Cisco Unified Presence Serviceability
E. Cisco Unified Serviceability

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
When using integrated messaging with Cisco Unity Express, which capability is available to the end user?
A. The ability to create, send, or reply to voice-mail messages from the email client.
B. The ability to delete voice-mail messages or to mark them as read or unread, as they would for email messages
C. The ability to only mark voice-mail messages as read or unread, as they would for email messages.
D. The ability to create, send, delete, or reply to voice-mail messages from the email client.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
When configuring a new Cisco Unified Personal Communicator device, which device type should be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager when using Cisco Unified Personal Communicator 8.X?
A. Cisco Unified Personal Communicator
B. Cisco IP Soft Phone
C. Cisco IP Communicator
D. Cisco Unified Client Services Framework
E. It depends on the IP phone that is associated to the Cisco IP Soft Phone

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
How does a notification profile use cascading settings?
A. Cascading settings send incremental messages to each member of the group in a sequential manner as soon as the initial message is received.
B. Cascading settings send a new message to a separate notification group upon receiving a new message.
C. Cascading settings allow a single message to be sent to all the members of a notification profile and any additional cascaded notification groups simultaneously.
D. Cascading settings allow additional message notifications to be sent, after a configured time delay, to a widening circle of recipients.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
When manually configuring users in Cisco Unity Connection, what is the most efficient way of adding the user to the system?
A. COBRAS
B. Cisco Unity user templates
C. Microsoft Active Directory
D. Cisco Unity Migration
E. LDAP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B. Associate the end device with the user.
C. Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D. Associate the directory number with the user.
E. Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which tool is helpful in obtaining Cisco Unified Personal Communicator log files that can be sent to Cisco TAC for troubleshooting assistance?
A. Cisco Unified RTMT
B. Cisco Unified Presence System Troubleshooter
C. Cisco Unified Presence Viewer
D. Problem Reporting Tool
E. Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Viewer

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
When the Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unity Express systems are networked together using VPIM, which of the following statements is true?
Exhibit:

A. The message exchange between the two systems will fail due to a conflict between the location ID and extension.
B. The message exchange between the two systems will succeed because the combination of location IDs and extensions is unique.
C. The message exchange between the two systems will fail because the location IDs should be using names instead of digits.
D. The message exchange between the two systems will only succeed toward the Cisco Unity Express site.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
A Cisco Unity Express administrator has configured three applications: voice mail and two auto-attendants. Cisco Unity Express supports a maximum of eight ports. The voice-mail application is configured for three max sessions. The two auto-attendants are configured for four max sessions each. What will be the result if three voice-mail sessions are in use and three callers dial into both auto-attendants?
A. All the sessions will be permitted because 10% more ports are supported per Cisco Unity Express license.
B. It will depend on which caller tries to reach the auto-attendant last. That call will not go through.
C. The Cisco Unity Express auto-attendant will place the call on hold for up to 30 seconds to wait for a port to open up. If a port does not open up, the call is dropped.
D. An application can borrow a single port from another application if one is available to handle a peak call load. If there are no ports available, the call is dropped.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
An IP phone user reports that they are unable to set the Call Forward All feature on their phone. The user reports that they press the CfwdAII softkey and enter the desired telephone number, but the phone does not accept it. What could be causing this issue?
A. The user is entering too many digits for the destination number.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not control Call Forward.
C. The Call Forward All service parameter is not enabled.
D. The Call Forward All option of the IP phone does not have a CSS defined.
E. The Call Forward All enterprise parameter is not enabled.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which four of the following will allow a Cisco Unity Express system administrator to add new mailboxes to the system? (Choose four.)
A. Choose Voice Mail >Mailboxes to add new mailboxes.
B. Choose User Defaults > Create Mailbox.
C. Choose Configure > Users and check the Create Mailbox check box.
D. Choose Configure >Groups. The Configure Groups window appears. Click Add. The Add a New Group window appears. Complete the information fields and check the Enable notification for this user/group checkbox.
E. Choose Voice Mail > VM Defaults and click Add Mailboxes.
F. Mailboxes can be created when users are imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.

Correct Answer: ACEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Exam A QUESTION 1
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 2
LAB A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 3
Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center

QUESTION 4
What will happen if you try to run a Cisco Security MARS query that will take a long time to complete?
A. After submitting the query, the Cisco Security MARS GUI screen will be locked up until the query is completed.
B. The query will be automatically saved as a rule.
C. The query will be automatically saved as a report.
D. You will be prompted to “Submit Batch” to run the query in batch mode.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
The Cisco Security MARS appliance supports which protocol for data archiving and restoring?
A. NFS
B. TFTP
C. FTP
D. Secure FTP
E. SSH

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What is a benefit of using the dollar variable (as in $TARGET01) when creating queries in Cisco Security MARS?
A. The dollar variable enables multiple queries to reference the same common 5-tuple information using a variable.
B. The dollar variable ensures that the probes and attacks that are reported are happening to the same host.
C. The dollar variable allows matching of any unknown reporting device.
D. The dollar variable allows matching of any event type groups.
E. The dollar variable enables the same query to be applied to different reports.
F. The dollar variable enables the same query to be applied to different cases.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A Cisco Security MARS appliance cannot access certain devices through the default gateway. Troubleshooting has determined that this is a Cisco Security MARS configuration issue. Which additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue?
A. use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol
B. use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route
C. use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways
D. use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
What are three ways to add devices to the Cisco Security MARS appliance? (Choose three.)
A. import the devices from CiscoWorks
B. import the devices from Cisco Security Manager
C. load the devices from seed files
D. use SNMP auto discovery
E. use CDP to automatically discover the neighboring devices
F. manually add the devices, one at a time

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
LAB A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 10
Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by either dropping the events completely, or by just logging them to the database?
A. creating system inspection rules using the drop operation
B. creating drop rules
C. inactivating the rules
D. inactivating the events
E. deleting the false-positive events from the Incidents page
F. deleting the false-positive events from the Event Management page

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose three.)
A. There are three types of rules.
B. Rules can be saved as reports.
C. Rules can be deleted.
D. Rules trigger incidents.
E. Rules can be defined using a seed file.
F. Rules can be created using a query.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which of the following alert actions can be transmitted to a user as notification that a Cisco Security MARS rule has fired, and that an incident has been logged? (Choose two.)
A. Distributed Threat Mitigation
B. Short Message Service
C. SNMP trap
D. XML notification
E. syslog
F. OPSEC-LEA (clear and encrypted)

Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
To configure a Microsoft Windows IIS server to publish logs to the Cisco
Security MARS, which log agent is installed and configured on the Microsoft Windows IIS server?

A. pnLog agent
B. Cisco Security MARS agent
C. SNARE
D. None. Cisco Security MARS is an agentless device.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What three data points are used to correlate reports in the Cisco Security MARS? (Choose three.)
A. Maximum Rank Returned
B. Query Criterion
C. View Type
D. Order/Rank By
E. Incident Type
F. Period of Time

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
The Service variables defined are used for what purpose?
A. for Event Groups creation
B. for Query/Reports and Rules creation
C. for IP Management Groups creation
D. for NetFlow Events Management
E. for Data Reduction

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the Cisco Security MARS Event Management partial screen shown above. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two) A. Event ID 1104001 is a low-severity event.

B. Event ID 1104001 is triggered if ALL of the syslog messages under the Device Event ID column are received by the Cisco Security MARS within a predefined time frame.
C. Event ID 1104001 belongs in an event group that includes generic informational events from firewalls.
D. PIX and FWSM syslog messages (104001) are normalized into a single event (Event ID 1104001).
E. Info/Misc/FW is a user-defined rule that normalizes events into a single event.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 18
When adding a device to the Cisco Security MARS appliance, what is the reporting IP address of the device?
A. the source IP address that sends syslog information to the Cisco Security MARS appliance
B. the IP address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via SNMP
C. the IP address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via Telnet or SSH
D. the pre-NAT IP address of the device

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 19
Which statement is true about the case management feature of Cisco Security MARS?
A. Cases are created on a global controller, but they can be viewed and modified on a local controller.
B. The global controller has a Case bar and all cases are selected from the Query/Reports > Cases page.
C. Cases are created on a local controller, but they can be viewed and modified on a global controller.
D. The Cases page on a local controller has an additional drop-down filter to display cases per a global controller.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
What is a zone?
A. A zone represents all the local controllers each global controller is monitoring.
B. A zone is a logical partition within a local controller. Configuring zones allows the local controller to scale to cover large networks.
C. A zone is an area of a customer network related to one local controller. Each local controller represents a specific zone.
D. Each zone within the global controller is configured and managed independently.
E. Each zone within the local controller is configured and managed independently.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

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