Cisco 640-722 Exam, Most Important Cisco 640-722 Study Guide With 100% Pass Rate

CCNA Wireless, Cisco Comments Off

Welcome to download the newest Examwind 642-647 VCE dumps: http://www.examwind.com/642-647.html

Cisco 640-722 exam sample questions can be used to FLYDUMPS help identify new market opportunities and potential collaboration partners. In fact, most HP HP2-T25 exam sample questions are design specifically for intended Microsoft exams with the help Microsoft experts and professionals.

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

Which GUI item do you click to configure maps with APs in Cisco WCS?
A. Configure
B. Client
C. CleanAir
D. Services E. Administration
F. Monitor
Correct Answer: F Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two options does this icon represent about the status of the respective AP on a Cisco WCS version 7.0 map? (Choose two.)
A. The 802.11a/n radio is administratively disabled.
B. The 802.11a/n radio has a minor fault.
C. The 802.11a/n radio has a major fault.
D. The 802.11b/g/n radio is administratively disabled.
E. The 802.11b/g/n radio has a minor fault.
F. The 802.11b/g/n radio has a major fault.
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
What is the difference between the IEEE, the WiFi Alliance, and the FCC, ETSI, and TELEC?
A. The IEEE and FCC are responsible for the standards that apply to wireless networks. The WiFi Alliance, ETSI, and TELEC are the governmental agencies that regulate compliance with local standards.
B. The IEEE is responsible for Layer 1 and Layer 2 protocols. The WiFi Alliance is responsible for interoperability testing. The FCC, ETSI, and TELEC are responsible for radio frequency and transmission power-level regulations and standards in the U.S., Europe, and Japan.
C. The IEEE is responsible for Layer 1 and Layer 2 protocols. The FCC, ETSI, and TELEC are responsible for interoperability testing and compliance. The WiFi Alliance is responsible for radio frequency and transmission power-level regulations and standards on a global basis.
D. The IEEE and FCC are responsible for the Layer 3 protocol support and frequency and power-level regulations in the United States. ETSI and TELEC are responsible for frequency and power-level regulations in Europe and Japan. The WiFi Alliance is responsible to interoperability testing.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
What is an MBSSID?
A. a virtual AP configured on a physical AP that share a single physical device, which is one half-duplex radio
B. a set of physical APs configured in a BSA to form cells that are controlled by a single controller
C. the group of clients that are allowed to gain access to one or more SSIDs configured in an AP
D. the identified overlap area between two cells, which identifies the clients that are operating in that area at any given time
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
You are testing a new autonomous Cisco Aironet 1260 AP that has booted for the first time on the existing corporate network, which includes voice, data, and
location services.
How do you reach the GUI of the AP?

A. HTTP to 10.0.0.1.
B. HTTP to 192.168.1.1.
C. HTTP to the DHCP address.
D. HTTPS to 10.0.0.1.
E. HTTPS to the 192.168.1.1.
F. HTTPS to the DHCP address.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
A WLAN deployment uses a combination of Cisco Aironet 1260 APs and multiple Cisco 5500 Wireless LAN Controllers to provide wireless LAN access to end-users. The network administrator has decided to use DHCP Option 43 to enable the APs to discover the wireless LAN controllers.
When configuring the DHCP scope, which format should be used for the Cisco WLC addresses?
A. a comma-separated ASCII string of Cisco WLC AP-manager addresses
B. a comma-separated ASCII string of Cisco WLC management addresses
C. a comma-separated ASCII string of Cisco WLC virtual IP addresses
D. a hexadecimal string of Cisco WLC AP-manager addresses
E. a hexadecimal string of Cisco WLC management addresses
F. a hexadecimal string of Cisco WLC virtual IP addresses
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Which interface is considered a dynamic interface?
A. the virtual interface
B. the AP manager interface
C. the LAG interface
D. the management interface
E. the service port interface
F. a WLAN client data interface
Correct Answer: F Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which three items do you need to establish a wireless connection to an enterprise wireless network? (Choose three.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. RF signal
D. 802.1X/EAP credentials
E. pre-shared key
F. web page
G. WPA/WPA2 settings
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
You have brought your MacBook Pro running OS 10.6 to work and intend use the enterprise wireless network. This network is using EAP-FAST and 2.4 GHz for data and 5 GHz for VoWLAN.
Which statement about the laptop configuration and wireless connection is true?
A. Install a USB wireless adapter and configure
B. Install Apple EAP-Fast plug-in and configure
C. Install Cisco AnyConnect v2.4 and configure
D. Configure Apple network preferences for EAP-FAST
E. The laptop does not support EAP-FAST and will be unable to connect
F. The laptop only supports 5 GHz and will be unable to connect
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM

E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which Cisco AnyConnect module provides wireless connectivity?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM

E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which option is needed to earn the Cisco Compatible credential for Cisco Compatible Extensions Lite?
A. Foundation and Management are required.
B. Location and Management are required.
C. Foundation and Location are required.
D. Foundation and Voice are required.
E. Voice is required.
F. Foundation is required.
G. Location is required.
H. Management is required.
Correct Answer: F Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
In a typical wireless network using WPA, WPA2 or VPN, why is it still possible for a rogue client to launch a DOS attack?
A. WPA and WPA2 are not considered strong encryption algorithms and are easily cracked.
B. 802.11 management frames are easily compromised.
C. Cisco Compatible Extensions v5 are required with WPA, WPA2, or VPN to keep rogues from launching attacks in the wireless network.
D. The message integrity check frames are never encrypted or authenticated, which allows rogues to spoof clients.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Strong security is required, but a centralized RADIUS authenticator has not been implemented. Which two steps must you take to provide maximum security when using a pre-shared key? (Choose two.)
A. Change the TKIP on a weekly basis.
B. Use a key that includes mixed-case letters, numbers, and symbols with a length greater than 10 characters.
C. Use only with WPA and WPA2, following proper strong key guidelines.
D. Use the longest possible WEP key in your security policy.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
What is the impact of configuring a single SSID to support TKIP and AES encryption simultaneously?
A. The overhead associated with supporting both encryption methods degrades client throughput significantly.
B. Some wireless client drivers might not handle complex SSID settings and may be unable to associate to the WLAN.
C. This configuration is unsupported and the Cisco Wireless Control System generates alarms continuously until the configuration is corrected.
D. This configuration is common for migrating from WPA to WPA2. No problem is associated with using this configuration.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which key is established using the four-way handshake during the WPA authentication process?
A. Pairwise Master Key
B. Pairwise Multiple Key
C. Pairwise Session Key
D. Pairwise Transient Key
E. Pairwise Transverse Key
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
What are four features of WPA? (Choose four.)
A. a larger initialization vector, increased to 48 bits
B. a message integrity check protocol to prevent forgeries
C. authenticated key management using 802.1X
D. support for a key caching mechanism
E. unicast and broadcast key management
F. requires AES-CCMP
Correct Answer: ABCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
When the enterprise-based authentication method is used for WPA2, a bidirectional handshake exchange occurs between the client and the authenticator. Which five options are results of that exchange being used on a controller-based network? (Choose five.)
A. a bidirectional exchange of a nonce used for key generation
B. binding of a Pairwise Master Key at the client and the controller
C. creation of the Pairwise Transient Key
D. distribution of the Group Transient Key
E. distribution of the Pairwise Master key for caching at the access point
F. proof that each side is alive
Correct Answer: ABCDF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
When a guest client is authenticated, which type of connection is created between the controller- based AP and the client?
A. as SSL connection
B. a TLS encrypted tunnel
C. an unsecured connection
D. a 802.1x/EAP tunnel
E. an IPsec tunnel
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.

Which GUI item do you click to configure authentication and authorization in Cisco WCS?
A. Security
B. Monitor
C. Configure
D. Services
E. Administration
F. Tools
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
When adding a controller to manage through Cisco WCS, which address type is used and which SNMP function does the Cisco WCS perform?
A. The controller is managed through its MAC address and the Cisco WCS acts as a SNMP TRAP authenticator.
B. The IP address of the controller is used and the Cisco WCS acts as a SNMP TRAP receiver.
C. The controller is managed through its MAC address and the Cisco WCS acts as a SNMP agent.
D. The controller connects through its MAC address to the Cisco WCS and the Cisco WCS uses the SNMP to manage the controller for all configured SNMP parameters.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Which three severity levels are in the Cisco WCS alarm dashboard? (Choose three.)
A. Critical
B. Flash
C. Major
D. Minor
E. Trivial
F. Urgent
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running version 7.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS.
Which default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Critical
B. Flash
C. Urgent
D. Major
E. Minor
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Which Cisco WCS tool allows you to view current reports, open specific types of reports, create and save new reports, and manage scheduled runs?
A. Reports menu
B. Reports launch page
C. Scheduled Run results
D. saved reports
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which path do you take to manage the results of a report that had been run on network utilization?
A. Reports > Report Launch Pad > Device > Utilization
B. Reports > Report Launch Pad > Scheduled Run Results
C. Reports > Saved Reports > Scheduled Run Results
D. Reports > Scheduled Run Results
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which CLI command is used on a Cisco WLC to troubleshoot mobility, rogue detection, and load-balancing events?
A. debug dot11
B. debug capwap all
C. show dot11 details
D. show capwap details
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Which three WLC debug commands are appropriate to troubleshoot a wireless client that is associated to an AP? (Choose three.)
A. debug capwap
B. debug mac addr
C. debug dot11
D. debug dhcp
E. debug ap
F. debug dtls
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Which command path correctly describes how to access and troubleshoot clients with Cisco WCS version 7.0?
A. Tools > Clients > select displayed client’s MAC address
B. Tools > Clients > enter client’s MAC address
C. Monitor > Clients > click displayed client’s MAC address
D. Monitor > Clients > enter client’s MAC address
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which single tool helps to troubleshoot client-related issues in a WLAN?
A. The show and debug commands on the controller.
B. The show commands on the AP.
C. Client templates on the Cisco WCS.
D. Client troubleshooting on the Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which option best describes the limitation of a client that is attempting to manage a WLC while using the client wireless adapter connection to the wireless infrastructure?
A. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
B. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers, but not the same controller and the AP to which the client is associated.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit.

With the current Cisco WLC version 7.0 syslog level settings set the way they are, which log levels are captured by the Syslog server?
A. syslog level errors only
B. all syslog levels
C. only the syslog severity level number of error and greater
D. only the syslog severity level number of error and less
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which type of management tasks can be completed on a Cisco WLC remotely from a wireless client?
A. All management and configuration tasks can be performed from a wireless client except for using debug commands.
B. In the default configuration, no management or configuration is possible through the GUI or CLI on the Cisco WLC.
C. The default configuration of the Cisco WLC allows only CLI access and then only the use of show commands, so no configuration is possible.
D. All management and configuration tasks, except uploads from and downloads to the Cisco WLC, are permitted.
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
When using a Cisco WLC version 7.0 with a default configuration, how is a remote management HTTPS access connection secured?
A. The Cisco WLC uses a pre-shared key to authenticate the user, which limits the number of potential users that can access the controller.
B. The Cisco WLC generates its own local web administration SSL certificate and automatically applies it to the GUI.
C. The Cisco WLC uses a CA certificate for SSL access.
D. The Cisco WLC uses HTTPS to secure the HTTP session via a preconfigured password that generates a certificate for each session.
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
You have an organization that has a growing number of standalone APs. You would like to migrate to lightweight APs and manage them through Cisco WCS. Which software platform allows you to make this migration?
A. The enterprise version of Cisco WCS allows this migration and provides the most flexibility in the number of APs supported.
B. CiscoWorks WLSE is the only management platform that allows this migration, but it is limited to 500 APs.
C. You can migrate your network to Cisco WCS single server with the CiscoWorks WLSE upgrade software upgrade.
D. You can migrate the network by using either the single server or enterprise software platforms, both using the CiscoWorks WLSE upgrade software upgrade.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 60
Which statement best describes the ability of a wireless client to access and transmit a data frame to an AP?
A. The client listens to the media until polled by the AP using PCF to send its data.
B. The client listens to the media until a data frame is finished, at which time it transmits, unless a collision of data frames has occurred.
C. The client uses random countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
D. The client listens to the media and countdown timers to start the transmission of a data frame.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Which statement about ZigBee technology is true?
A. It has low power consumption.
B. It is designed only for point-to-point communications.
C. It ranges up to 250 meters.
D. It supports data rates up to 1 and 2 Mb/s.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which four options are the characteristics of the original 802.11 protocol? (Choose four.)
A. Defined DSSS and FHSS as possible methods for modulation
B. Designed to operate in the 5 GHz ISM frequency spectrum
C. The most common deployment is three non-overlapping channels that are 20 MHz wide
D. The protocol sets the maximum throughput at 1 Mb/s or 2 Mb/s
E. Defined FHSS and OFDM as possible methods for modulation
F. The most common deployment is three non-overlapping channels that are 22 MHz wide
G. Designed to operate in the 2.4 GHz ISM frequency spectrum
H. The protocol sets the maximum throughput at 1 Mb/s
Correct Answer: ACDG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FHSS is still described in the original 802.11 protocol, but another technique was preferred and adopted by all 802.11 networks: Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum. Instead of small channels and a jumping sequence, the information is sent over a wider channel. This channel is 22 MHz wide (if the center frequency is 2.412, this channel spans from 2.401 GHz to 2.423 GHz) and does not move (no hopping, which is why the sequence is said to be direct instead of hopping). Then, over this 22 MHz channel, several bits of information are sent in parallel. If a source of interference affects part of the channel, it will prevent only the bits sent in that frequency from reaching the receiver.
QUESTION 63
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
How many dBm is 40 mW?
A. 10 dBm
B. 16 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 22 dBm
E. 40 dBm
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
If an antenna has a dBd of 8.6, what is the dBi value?
A. 6.2
B. 6.46
C. 8.6
D. 10.74
E. 12.88
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Antenna performance Antenna performance is measured in dBi (the antennas gain/loss over a theoretical isotropic antenna) dBd (the antennas gain/loss over a dipole antenna) dBi = dBd + 2.15 dBd = dBi 2.15
QUESTION 66
Which calculation computes the EIRP of an antenna?
A. EIRP = Tx power (dBm) + Antenna Gain (dBi) – Cable Loss (dB)
B. EIRP= Cable Loss (dB)+ Antenna Gain (dBi) – Tx power (dBm)
C. EIRP = Cable Loss (dB)+ Antenna Gain (dBi) / Tx power (dBm)
D. EIRP = Tx power (dBm) + Antenna Gain (dBi) / Cable Loss (dB)
E. EIRP = Antenna Gain (dBi) – Cable Loss (dB) * Tx power (dBm)
F. EIRP = Tx power (dBm) * Antenna Gain (dBi) / Cable Loss (dB)
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which three items are allowed on an Ethernet trunk port? (Choose three.)
A. autonomous AP
B. FlexConnect AP
C. local AP
D. monitor AP
E. rogue detector AP
F. sniffer AP
G. SE-Connect AP
H. Cisco WLC
Correct Answer: BEH Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which option describes computer-to-computer wireless communication?
A. BSS and BSA
B. IBSS and ad hoc network
C. ad hoc network and BSA
D. IBSS and ESS
E. ESS and BSA
F. BSS and ad hoc network
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which two statements about AES-CCMP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is an encryption algorithm used in the 802.11i security protocol.
B. It is defined in 802.1X.
C. It is the encryption algorithm used in TKIP implementations.
D. It is required in WPA.
E. It is required in WPA2.
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
Which two statements about beacon frames used by access points are true? (Choose two.)
A. They contain SSIDs if this feature is enabled.
B. They provide vendor proprietary information.
C. They are another name for an associated request.
D. They are sent in response to a probe frame.
E. They include ATIM window information for power save operations.
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which two actions are best for deploying VoWLAN on a wireless network? (Choose two.)
A. Minimize the use of Class 3 Bluetooth devices.
B. Minimize the use of analog cameras.
C. Minimize the use of IP cameras.
D. Maximize client access by enabling all data rates used by clients.
E. Maximize client access by enabling only a few high data rates used by clients.
Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
What is the equivalent of 26 dBm in milliwatts?
A. 4 mW
B. 40 mW
C. 100 mW
D. 400 mW
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
What is the EIRP value for a transmitter that has a transmitter capable of 15 dBm, an antenna that has a gain of 12 dBi, and a cable that connects the transmitter to the antenna that has 1 db loss?
A. 26 dBm
B. 100 mW
C. .86 dBm
D. 165 dBm
E. 1000 mW
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
What are three primary components that describe TKIP? (Choose three.)
A. broadcast key rotation
B. dynamic WEP
C. message integrity check
D. per-packet key hashing
E. symmetric key cipher
F. WPA2 enterprise mode
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
When an AP, in its default configuration mode, connects to a Cisco WLC, which methods are available for remote management access to an AP?
A. SSL and SSH are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
B. SSH only
C. HTTPS, and SSH
D. SSH and Telnet
E. SSH and Telnet are available only after configuration by a Cisco WLC version 7.0.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 76
Which three options are limitations when configuring basic security on an autonomous AP when using the express security page setup? (Choose three.)
A. You need multiple SSIDs.
B. Delete all the SSIDs.
C. Edit the SSIDs.
D. Use multiple authentication servers.
E. Use the same SSID on both radios.
F. Use a single SSID on a single radio.
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Flydumps is ready to provide Cisco 640-722 candidates with Cisco 640-722 training materials which can be very much helpful for getting Cisco 640-722 certification, which means that candidates.Cisco 640-722 can easily get access to the services of Cisco 640-722 for practice exam,which will assure them 100% Cisco 640-722 success rate.Though Cisco 640-722 tests are not easy at all, but they do not make Cisco 640-722 things complicated.

Welcome to download the newest Examwind 642-647 VCE dumps: http://www.examwind.com/642-647.html

Cisco 640-722 Exam, Most Important Cisco 640-722 Study Guide With 100% Pass Rate

Author

Back to Top