Welcome to Leader of IT Certifications. Best Practice, Certify for Sure!

Index

Content published at Leader of IT Certifications. Best Practice, Certify for Sure!More then 360 posts found
Ec-council

312-50V12 DUMPS 2023 | Effective preparation strategy

EC-COUNCIL 312-50V12 The exam is very popular and has many suitors. How to prepare it effectively? Candidates need to know about the 312-50v12 exam and be familiar with the mode. This is important for cracking the exam. At this time, 312-50V12 dumps 2023 appear.

Exams require adequate practice and preparation. Pass4itSure provides an effective preparation strategy that is strategic and well-planned to ensure success. Its updated 312-50V12 dumps 2023 https://www.pass4itsure.com/312-50v12.html is the best helper for cracking the exam.

About 312-50V12 exam

As mentioned earlier, the 312-50v12 exam mode is important. Familiarize yourself with question types, scores, the importance of content proportions, and time.

You can find it in Certified Ethical Hacker v12 Certification Get these basics on the official CEH v12 website.

The URL link is as follows:

https://www.eccouncil.org/train-certify/certified-ethical-hacker-ceh/

https://www.eccouncil.org/certified-ethical-hacker-training-and-certification/

Using a Pass4itSure 312-50v12 dumps

312-50v12 dumps 2023 not only provides you with the latest exam questions, but another important role is also to improve and practice the exam. This helps to analyze weak areas and better focus on them. At the same time, you can also learn to manage your time effectively. It also gives you confidence.

This also answers the question of why it is an effective preparation strategy.

Try the EC-Council 312-50v12 free dumps (2023) demo below:

Question 1:

A friend of yours tells you that he downloaded and executed a file that was sent to him by a coworker. Since the file did nothing when executed, he asks you for help because he suspects that he may have installed a trojan on his computer.

what tests would you perform to determine whether his computer Is Infected?

A. Use ExifTool and check for malicious content.

B. You do not check; rather, you immediately restore a previous snapshot of the operating system.

C. Upload the file to VirusTotal.

D. Use netstat and check for outgoing connections to strange IP addresses or domains.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Identify the UDP port that Network Time Protocol (NTP) uses as its primary means of communication.

A. 113

B. 69

C. 123

D. 161

Correct Answer: C

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network_Time_Protocol The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is a networking protocol for clock synchronization between computer systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. NTP is intended to synchronize all participating computers within a few milliseconds of Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).

It uses the intersection algorithm, a modified version of Marzullo\’s algorithm, to select accurate time servers and is designed to mitigate variable network latency effects. NTP can usually maintain time to within tens of milliseconds over the public Internet and achieve better than one-millisecond accuracy in local area networks.

Asymmetric routes and network congestion can cause errors of 100 ms or more. The protocol is usually described in terms of a client-server model but can easily be used in peer-to-peer relationships where both peers consider the other to be a potential time source.

Implementations send and receive timestamps using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) on port number 123.


Question 3:

Leverox Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization. From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies. He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks. In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks. What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?

A. Strategic threat intelligence

B. Tactical threat intelligence

C. Operational threat intelligence

D. Technical threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company\’s security policy states that all Web browsers must automatically delete their HTTP browser cookies upon terminating. What sort of security breach is this policy attempting to mitigate?

A. Attempts by attackers to access the user and password information stored in the company\’s SQL database.

B. Attempts by attackers to access Web sites that trust the Web browser user by stealing the user\’s authentication credentials.

C. Attempts by attackers to access passwords stored on the user\’s computer without the user\’s knowledge.

D. Attempts by attackers to determine the user\’s Web browser usage patterns, including when sites were visited and for how long.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Morris, a professional hacker, performed a vulnerability scan on a target organization by sniffing the traffic on the network to identify the active systems, network services, applications, and vulnerabilities.

He also obtained the list of the users who are currently accessing the network. What is the type of vulnerability assessment that Morris performed on the target organization?

A. internal assessment

B. Passive assessment

C. External assessment

D. Credentialed assessment

Correct Answer: B

Passive Assessment Passive assessments sniff the traffic present on the network to identify the active systems, network services, applications, and vulnerabilities. Passive assessments also provide a list of the users who are currently accessing the network.


Question 6:

What is the following command used for?

net use \targetipc$ “/u:” A. Grabbing the etc/passwd file

B. Grabbing the SAM

C. Connecting to a Linux computer through Samba.

D. This command is used to connect as a null session

E. Enumeration of Cisco routers

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which of the following is the least-likely physical characteristic to be used in biometric control that supports a large company?

A. Iris patterns

B. Voice

C. Height and Weight

D. Fingerprints

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What piece of hardware on a computer\’s motherboard generates encryption keys and only releases a part of the key so that decrypting a disk on a new piece of hardware is not possible?

A. CPU

B. GPU

C. UEFI

D. TPM

Correct Answer: D

The TPM is a chip that\’s part of your computer\’s motherboard — if you bought an off-the-shelf PC, it\’s soldered onto the motherboard.

If you built your own computer, you can buy one as an add-on module if your motherboard supports it. The TPM generates encryption keys, keeping part of the key to itself.


Question 9:

What is the least important information when you analyze a public IP address in a security alert?

A. DNS

B. Whois

C. Geolocation

D. ARP

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Steven connected his iPhone to a public computer that had been infected by Clark, an attacker. After establishing the connection with the public computer, Steven enabled iTunes WI-FI sync on the computer so that the device could continue communication with that computer even after being physically disconnected.

Now, Clark gains access to Steven\’s iPhone through the infected computer and is able to monitor and read all of Steven\’s activity on the iPhone, even after the device is out of the communication zone.

Which of the following attacks is performed by Clark in the above scenario?

A. IOS trustjacking

B. lOS Jailbreaking

C. Exploiting SS7 vulnerability

D. Man-in-the-disk attack

Correct Answer: A

An iPhone client\’s most noticeably terrible bad dream is to have somebody oversee his/her gadget, including the capacity to record and control all actions without waiting to be in a similar room.

In this blog entry, we present another weakness called “Trustjacking”, which permits an aggressor to do precisely that. This weakness misuses an iOS highlight called iTunes Wi-Fi sync, which permits a client to deal with their iOS gadget without genuinely interfacing it with their PC.

A solitary tap by the iOS gadget proprietor when the two are associated with a similar organization permits an assailant to oversee the gadget. Furthermore, we will stroll through past related weaknesses and show the progressions that iPhone has made to alleviate them, and why these are adequate not to forestall comparative assaults.

After interfacing an iOS gadget with another PC, the clients are found out if they trust the associated PC or not. Deciding to believe the PC permits it to speak with the iOS gadget by means of the standard iTunes APIs.

This permits the PC to get to the photographs on the gadget, perform reinforcement, introduce applications, and considerably more, without requiring another affirmation from the client and with no recognizable sign.

Besides, this permits enacting the “iTunes Wi-Fi sync” highlight, which makes it conceivable to proceed with this sort of correspondence with the gadget even after it has been detached from the PC, as long as the PC and the iOS gadget are associated with a similar organization.

It is intriguing to take note that empowering “iTunes Wi-Fi sync” doesn’t need the casualty\’s endorsement and can be directed simply from the PC side. Getting a live stream of the gadget\’s screen should be possible effectively by consistently requesting screen captures and showing or recording them distantly.

It is imperative to take note that other than the underlying single purpose of disappointment, approving the vindictive PC, there is no other component that forestalls this proceeding with access.

Likewise, there isn’t anything that informs the clients that by approving the PC they permit admittance to their gadget even in the wake of detaching the USB link.


Question 11:

Sam, is a professional hacker. targeted an organization with intention of compromising AWS IAM credentials. He attempted to lure one of the employees of the organization by initiating fake calls while posing as a legitimate employee.

Moreover, he sent phishing emails to steal the AWS 1 AM credentials and further compromise the employee\’s account. What is the technique used by Sam to compromise the AWS IAM credentials?

A. Social engineering

B. insider threat

C. Password reuse

D. Reverse engineering

Correct Answer: A

Just like any other service that accepts usernames and passwords for logging in, AWS users are vulnerable to social engineering attacks from attackers. fake emails, calls, or any other method of social engineering, may find yourself with AWS users\’ credentials within the hands of an attacker.

If a user only uses API keys for accessing AWS, general phishing techniques could still use to gain access to other accounts or their pc itself, where the attacker may then pull the API keys for the aforementioned AWS user. With basic open-source intelligence (OSINT), it\’s usually simple to collect a list of workers of an organization that uses AWS on a regular basis.

This list will then be targeted with spear phishing to do and gather credentials. an easy technique may include an email that says your bill has spiked 500th within the past 24 hours, “click here for additional information”, and when they click the link, they\’re forwarded to a malicious copy of the AWS login page designed to steal their credentials.

An example of such an email will be seen in the screenshot below. it\’s exactly like an email that AWS would send to you if you were to exceed the free tier limits, except for a few little changes.

If you clicked on any of the highlighted regions within the screenshot, you\’d not be taken to the official AWS website and you\’d instead be forwarded to a pretend login page setup to steal your credentials.

These emails will get even more specific by playing a touch bit of additional OSINT before causing them out. If an attacker was ready to discover your AWS account ID online somewhere, they could use methods we at rhino have free previously to enumerate what users and roles exist in your account with no logs of contact on your side.

they could use this list to refine their target list, further as their emails to reference services they will know that you often use.

For reference, the journal post for using AWS account IDs for role enumeration will be found here and the journal post for using AWS account IDs for user enumeration will be found here.

During engagements at the rhino, we find that phishing is one of the fastest ways for us to achieve access to an AWS environment.


Question 12:

Annie, a cloud security engineer, uses the Docker architecture to employ a client/server model in the application she is working on. She utilizes a component that can process API requests and handle various Docker objects, such as containers, and volumes. Images, and networks.

What is the component of the Docker architecture used by Annie in the above scenario?

A. Docker client

B. Docker objects

C. Docker daemon

D. Docker registries

Correct Answer: C

Docker uses a client-server design. The docker client talks to the docker daemon, which will do the work of building, running, and distributing your Docker containers. The docker client and daemon will run on the same system, otherwise, you will connect a docker consumer to a remote docker daemon.

The docker consumer and daemon communicate using a REST API, over OS sockets or a network interface.


The docker daemon (docked) listens for docker API requests and manages docker objects like pictures, containers, networks, and volumes. A daemon may communicate with other daemons to manage docker services.


Question 13:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Security administrator John Smith has noticed abnormal amounts of traffic coming from local computers at night. Upon review, he finds that user data have been exfiltrated by an attacker.

AV tools are unable to find any malicious software, and the IDS/IPS has not reported on any non-whitelisted programs, what type of malware did the attacker use to bypass the company\’s application whitelisting?

A. Phishing malware

B. Zero-day malware

C. File-less malware

D. Logic bomb malware

Correct Answer: C

https://www.mcafee.com/enterprise/en-us/security-awareness/ransomware/what-is-fileless-malware.html


Question 15:

Which of the following represents the initial two commands that an IRC client sends to join an IRC network?

A. USER, NICK

B. LOGIN, NICK

C. USER, PASS

D. LOGIN, USER

Correct Answer: A


The above is just to share some of the exam practice questions, complete need to get the latest 312-50V12 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/312-50v12.html (total 528 questions).

Conclusion:

The 312-50V12 exam is related to the Certified Ethical Hacker Exam (CEHv12) certification. Therefore, it is a huge help for those who pass smoothly. So, if you plan to move to the next level of your career, using 312-50v12 dumps 2023 as an effective preparation strategy to get through it, is essential.

Pl-300 pdf

New PL-300 Dumps Provide Effective preparation Resources [Update Feb 2023]

I guess you need effective preparation resources to prepare for the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst PL-300 exam, and if so, you’ve come to the right place, we’ve just updated the PL-300 dumps to provide the latest PL-300 exam preparation resources to help you prepare for the exam with ease.

Whether you’re looking for a job, a promotion, or a skill set, successfully passing the PL-300 exam can help you achieve it. Get Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps at https://www.pass4itsure.com/pl-300.html now (291 new questions).

PL-300 Exam Questions/Dumps With Answers Free https://drive.google.com/file/d/16k73OOmvfsLqwnuUJTSBdNqyFaX8c7e_/view?usp=share_link

How to get Microsoft PL-300? First, a brief look at what it is

Passing the PL-300 exam earns you the Microsoft Certified: Data Analyst Associate, which is highly valuable, and the Data Analyst Associate certification is a good place to start.

There have been some changes to the exam rules on January 31, 2023, please check the official website for changes.

Next, go to the topic, of how to easily prepare for the PL-300

Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps can help you! Meaningful exam preparation resources from real-world questions on the test floor and on the job site to help you gain the core skills and key competencies required for Microsoft Certified Data Analyst Associate.

Why was Pass4itSure created?

Today’s IT world is a highly competitive world. Efficiency is pursued in everything, and passing the PL-300 exam is no exception. Pass4itSure was born to help you pass the exam efficiently and prove your abilities.

Hope you get into the PL-30 free dumps test

The latest questions are provided for free by Pass4itSure.

Question 1:

A manager can represent only a single country. You need to use row-level security (RLS) to meet the following requirements: The managers must only see the data of their respective countries.

The number of RLS roles must be minimized. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Create a single role that filters Country by using the USERNAME DAX function.

B. Create a single role that filters Country by using the USEROBJECTID DAX function.

C. For the relationship between Purchase Detail and Purchase, select Apply security filter in both directions.

D. Create one role for each country.

E. For the relationship between Purchase and Purchase Detail, change the Cross filter direction to Single.

Correct Answer: AC

In Power BI Service the username and user principal name both return the email address, it\’s only in Power BI Desktop that the username is the domain/username rather than the email address. So I agree that the user principal name is better generally as you always get the same value, the answer is correct and you can use the username as your RLS since the role will be applied in the Service.

See https://community.powerbi.com/t5/Community-Blog/USERNAME-v-s-USERPRINCIPALNAME-in-RLS-for-Power-BI-Embedded/ba-p/1867670 for more information.


Question 2:

You have a Power Bi report. The report contains a visual that snows gross sales by date The visual have anomaly detection enabled. No anomalies ate detected.

You need to increase the likelihood that anomaly detection will identify anomalies in the report. What should you do?

A. Add a data field to the Secondary values field weft

B. Increase the Sensitivity setting.

C. Increase the Expected range transparency setting,

D. Add a data field to the Legend field well

Correct Answer: B

If you increase the sensitivity, the algorithm is more sensitive to changes in your data. In that case, even a slight deviation is marked as an anomaly. If you decrease the sensitivity, the algorithm is more selective about what it considers an anomaly.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-anomaly-detection


Question 3:

You have a Power Bl workspace that contains a dataset. a report, and a dashboard. The following groups have access:

1. External users can access the dashboard.

2. Managers can access the dashboard and a manager-specific report.

3. Employees can access the dashboard and a row-level security (RLS) constrained report.

You need all users, including external users, to be able to tag workspace administrators if they identify an issue with the dashboard. The solution must ensure that other users see the issues that were raised. What should you use?

A. subscriptions

B. comments

C. alerts

D. chat in Microsoft Teams

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You need to create a visual as shown in the following exhibit.

The indicator color for Total Sales will be based on % Growth to Last Year.

The solution must use the existing calculations only. How should you configure the visual? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Background color

To format the Color column based on its field values, select Conditional formatting for the Color field, and then select the Background color or Font color.

In the Background color or Font color dialog box, select Field value from the Format by drop-down field.

Box 2: Field value

With conditional formatting for tables in Power BI Desktop, you can specify customized cell colors, including color gradients, based on field values.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/desktop-conditional-table-formatting


Question 5:

You publish a Microsoft Power BI dataset to powerbi.com. The dataset appends data from an on-premises Oracle database and an Azure SQL database by using one query.

You have admin access to the workspace and permission to use an existing On-premises data gateway for which the Oracle data source is already configured.

You need to ensure that the data is updated every morning. The solution must minimize configuration effort.

Which two actions should you perform when you configure scheduled refresh? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Configure the dataset to use the existing On-premises data gateway.

B. Deploy an On-premises data gateway in personal mode.

C. Set the refresh frequency to Daily.

D. Configure the dataset to use the personal gateway.

Correct Answer: AC

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/service-gateway-personal-mode


Question 6:

DRAG DROP

You have a Microsoft Power BI workspace.

You need to grant the user capabilities shown in the following table.

The solution must use the principle of least privilege.

Which user role should you assign to each user? To answer, drag the appropriate roles to the correct users. Each role may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Member

Incorrect Answers:

Contributors can update the app metadata but not publish a new app or change who has permission to the app.

Box 2: Contributor

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/collaborate-share/service-new-workspaces


Question 7:

Your company has employees in 10 states. The company recently decided to associate each state with one of the following three regions: East, West, and North.

You have a data model that contains employee information by state. The model does NOT include region information. You have a report that shows the employees by state.

You need to view the employees by region as quickly as possible. What should you do?

A. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by the employee.

B. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to List.

C. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to Bin.

D. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by state.

Correct Answer: B

https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/4720/binning-and-grouping-data-with-power-bi/


Question 8:

You build a report to analyze customer transactions from a database that contains the tables shown in the following table.

You import the tables. Which relationship should you use to link the tables?

A. one-to-many from Customer to Transaction

B. one-to-one between Customer and Transaction

C. one-to-many from Transaction to Customer

D. many-to-many between Customer and Transaction

Correct Answer: A

Each customer can have many transactions.

For each transaction, there is exactly one customer.


Question 9:

For the sales department at your company, you publish a Power Bl report that imports data from Microsoft Excel We located it in a Microsoft SharePoint folder The data model contains several measures You need to create a Power Bl report from the existing data. The solution must minimize development efforts. Which type of data source should you use?

A. a SharePoint folder

B. Power Bl dataflows

C. an Excel workbook

D. Power Bl dataset

Correct Answer: D

the case states there is already a report published and the data model contains measures. therefore and to be able to use the measures in the data model you should connect to the existing dataset (which was created when you published the report) instead of starting from scratch with the files in the SharePoint folder.


Question 10:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a clustered bar chart that contains a measure named Salary as the value and a field named Employee as the axis. Salary is present in the data as a numerical amount representing US dollars.

You need to create a reference line to show which employees are above the median salary. Solution: You create a constant line and set the value to .5. Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead, create a percentile line by using the Salary measure and set the percentile to 50%.

Note: The 50th percentile is also known as the median or middle value where 50 percent of observations fall below.

Reference:

https://dash-intel.com/powerbi/statistical_functions_percentile.php


Question 11:

You need to create a Power BI theme that will be used in multiple reports. The theme will include corporate branding for font size, color, and bar chart formatting. What should you do?

A. From Power Bl Desktop, customize the current theme,

B. From power Bl Desktop, use a built-in report theme.

C. Create a theme as a JSON file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

D. Create a theme as a PBIVlZ file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You create a parameter named DataSourceExcel that holds the file name and location of a Microsoft Excel data source.

You need to update the query to reference the parameter instead of multiple hard-coded copies of the location within each query definition.

Solution: You modify the source step of the queries to use DataSourceExcel as the file path.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Parameterizing a Data Source could be used in many different use cases. From connecting to different data sources defined in Query Parameters to load different combinations of columns.

Reference: https://www.biinsight.com/power-bi-desktop-query-parameters-part-1/


Question 13:

HOTSPOT

You need to grant access to the business unit analysts.

What should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: The Viewer role in the workspace The Viewer role gives a read-only experience to its users. They can view dashboards, reports, or workbooks in the workspace, but can’t browse the datasets or dataflows. Use the Viewer role wherever you would previously use a classic

workspace set to “Members can only view Power BI content”.

Box 2: Build

The analysts must be able to build new reports from the dataset that contains the profit and loss data.

Scenario: The reports must be made available to the board from powerbi.com.

The analysts responsible for each business unit must see all the data the board sees, except the profit and loss data, which must be restricted to only their business unit\’s data.

The analysts must be able to build new reports from the dataset that contains the profit and loss data, but any reports that the analysts build must not be included in the quarterly reports for the board. The analysts must not be able to share the quarterly reports with anyone.


Question 14:

HOTSPOT

You are creating a Microsoft Power BI model that has two tables named CityData and Sales.

CityData contains only the data shown in the following table.

CityData and Sales are related using a many-to-many relationship based upon the State column in each table.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 15:

HOTSPOT

You are creating a quick measure as shown in the following exhibit.

You need to create a monthly rolling average measure for Sales over time.

How should you configure the quick measure calculation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Total Sales We select the field Total Sales

Box 2: Date Select a date field.

Box 3: Month Monthly periods.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-quick-measures

Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps like no other

  • Make sure to lead PL-300 exam preparation resources on the Internet
  • Regularly update the relevance and quality of your questions, and never get out of style
  • Our staff has traveled the road and experienced precipitates so that candidates have fewer detours

The PL-300 exam certification is in constant flux, and only the latest preparation resources can keep pace.

How do I get the latest Microsoft PL-300 dumps?

Getting our Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/pl-300.html is quick and easy! Just follow these steps:

  • First, find the exam dumps you want in the exam list on the website and click to enter it
  • Select your desired PL-300 dumps format (PDF or VCE)
  • Click on it, pay the corresponding fee and you will see the checkout page
  • Complete the payment to use the full exam practice questions in the dumps.

You can now study and complete your certification exam with confidence!

Cisco

350-601 dumps [2023 updated] New Exam Prep Questions

2023 has already begun, and everything needs to be new in the new year. Successfully passing the Cisco CCNP 350-601 (DCCOR) exam requires new exam preparation questions. Don’t worry, Pass4itSure has updated the 350-601 dumps 2023 for you, designed to provide the latest 350-601 exam questions to help you prepare for the exam.

The newly updated 350-601 dumps (Pass4itSure) https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-601.html provides you with 458 new questions to help you clear the exam.

Do you understand the Cisco DCCOR 350-601 exam?

350-601 dumps 2023

The Cisco DCCOR 350-601 exam is a CCNP Data Center Certification core exam. The 350-601 exam is 120 minutes long and relates to CCNP Data Center, Cisco Certified Professional – Data Center Core, and CCIE Data Center certifications. The exam has 45-55 questions, and the question format is multiple choice, multiple answers. A passing score of 80% is required.

How to effectively crack the 350-601 exam?

Use the latest 350-601 dumps to take advantage of the 350-601 preparation exam questions in the dumps.

Where can I get the latest 350-601 DCCOR dumps?

The latest version of Pass4itSure 350-601 dumps, highly recommends Pass4itSure to everyone!! Good luck!!!

In addition, this article also provides free 350-601 dumps Q&A, so read on.

New Cisco 350-601 free dumps questions 2023

New question 1

Which configuration implements static ingress replication?

A. Interface nve 1 member vni 3719035 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4
B. Interface nve 1 member vni 3719035 ingress-replication protocol bgp
C. Interface nve 1 member vai 3719035 peer vtep 10.0.0.4
D. Interface nve 1 member vni 3719035 peer vtep 10.0.0.4 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4

Correct Answer: A

New question 2

An engineer must apply AAA configuration on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. The solution must meet these conditions: It must use a challenge-response authentication protocol that uses MD5 hashing with an incrementally changing identifier.

The RADIUS configuration must be automatically shared with other MDS switches in the environment. The RADIUS server is already defined. Which command set completes the configuration?

A. aaa authentication login chap enable radius to distribute radius commit
B. aaa authentication login pap enable distribute radius radius-server host 10.8.8.0 auth-port 1821
C. aaa authentication login mschapv2 enable radius to propagate radius authentication port 1821
D. aaa authentication login mishap enables radius to commit radius-server host 10.8.8.0

Correct Answer: A

New question 3

A UCS B- Series server located in B5108 chassis 1 slot 1 is currently unavailable. The server needs to be associated with a specific service profile when it becomes available. Which associate service profile option should be selected to accomplish this goal?

A. server pool
B. server
C. custom server
D. restrict migration

Correct Answer: C

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter28.html

New question 4

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure FCoE between the N9K-A switch and the FCF-A Nexus 9000 core switch. The deployment has these characteristics:

The N9K-A and N9K-B top-of-rack switches share the domain ID of the core switches.
The hosts are equipped with converged network adapters.
The only VSAN that is used is permitted to traverse port-channel 100 is VSAN 20.

Which configuration completes the FCoE configuration on the N9K-A device?

A. N9K-A(config)# feature-set fcoe-npv N9K-A(config)# interface vfc-port-channel 100 N9K-A(config-if)# switchport mode E N9K-A(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vsan 1, 20
B. N9K-A(config)# feature-set fcoe-npv N9K-A(config)# interface vfc-port-channel 100 N9K-A(config-if)# switchport mode NP N9K-A(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vsan 20
C. N9K-A(config)# feature fcoe N9K-A(config)# feature npv N9K-A(config)# interface vfc 100 N9K-A(config-if)# bind interface port-channel 100 N9K-A(config-if)# switchport mode N N9K-A(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vsan 1, 20
D. N9K-A(config)# feature fcoe N9K-A(config)# feature npv N9K-A(config)# interface vfc 100 N9K-A(config-if)# bind interface port-channel 100 N9K-A(config-if)# switchport mode F N9K-A(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vsan 20

Correct Answer: B

New question 5

Refer to the exhibit. Software downgrade is required on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch. What is displayed when this command is executed?

A. features that are enabled automatically after the downgrade
B. impact of a software upgrade in ISSU and chassis reload
C. features and commands that are removed automatically from the configuration
D. compatibility of software in the system boot flash file

Correct Answer: B

New question 6

An engineer needs to implement a solution that will provide telemetry of MDS 9000 switches in a SAN fabric. The solution should use Cisco Data Center Network Manager (DCNIM) with SAN insights feature. Which three steps are required to deploy the solution? (Choose Three.)

A. Select a target Fabric to be monitored.
B. Activate ENTERPRISE_PKG license on target switches
C. Select the target ports to be monitored for telemetry data
D. Configure name resolution between the devices
E. Select a target VSAN to be monitored
F. Activate SAN_ANALYTICS_PKG license on target switches

Correct Answer: ACF

New question 7

Which configuration implements static ingress replication?

A. interface nve 1 member vni 2100980 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4
B. interface nve 1 member vni 127772151 ingress-replication protocol bgp
C. interface nve 1 member vni 3126980 peervtep 10.0.0.4 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4
D. interface nve 1 member vni 384233213 peer vtep 10.0.0.41

Correct Answer: A

New question 8

A network engineer must configure a power redundancy policy on a Cisco UCS C-Series Rack Server. The power redundancy must support two power sources being used to power the server. Which configuration should be applied to meet the requirement?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/CLI-User-Guides/ServerMgmt/3-1/b_Cisco_UCS_Manager_Server_Mgmt_CLI_Guide/power_mgmt.html The command “N+1” is invalid. The command should be “n-plus-1”

New question 9

An engineer configures the properties of a cisco UCS cisco integrated Management controller network adapter for a standalone cisco C-Series server. The Fallback Timeout in the vNIC was set to 600. When the failure occurs. The secondary must be used and then fallback when the primary interface becomes available again. Which action be taken to meet these requirements?

A. Set default VLAN on the adapters.
B. Increase Cos to 6.
C. Disable VNTAG mode.
D. Enable Uplink failover.

Correct Answer: D

New question 10

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the NAS protocols on the right.
Select and Place:

New question 11

What is the advantage of using Ansible for automation as compared to puppet and chef?

A. Ansible automates the enforcement of configuration settings.
B. Ansible performs automation without installing a software agent on the target node.
C. Ansible configures a set of CLI commands on a device by using NETCONF.
D. Ansible abstracts a scenario so that set of configuration settings can be used across multiple operating systems.

Correct Answer: B

New question 12


Refer to the exhibit. Which feature set must be used to configure switch 2 to establish a VSAN trunk between switch 1 and switch 2?

A. F Port Trunk Mode Passive
B. N Port Trunk Mode Active
C. NP Port Trunk Mode Auto
D. E Port Trunk Mode On

Correct Answer: D

New question 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the routing table of the leaf switch are true? (Choose two.)

A. The next hop 10.0.1.14 for route 172.16.99.0/24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
B. 172.16.100.0/24 is a BD subnet in ACI.
C. The next hop 10.0.8.65 for route 10.20.1.0./24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
D. The next hop 10.1.168.95 for route 172.16.100.0/24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
E. 10.20.1.0./24 is a BD subnet in ACI.

Correct Answer: DE

Quick crack Cisco DCCOR exam 350-601 pdf free download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/12QtKWtcW91RRLitZB_vkuYt8zyD8f2Lj/view?usp=share_link

Written at the end:

Preparing for the exam with Pass4itSure 350-601 dumps 2023 is the right choice to pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR) exam in 2023. The latest 350-601 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-601.html have the latest exam questions.

Cisco

350-401 Dumps [Updated 2023] Effective Prep Materials

Do not fight unprepared battles. Preparing for the Cisco (ENCOR) 350-401 exam also requires effective preparation materials.

Don’t worry, we’ve got you covered, updated 350-401 exam preparation materials. Courtesy of Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-401.html. The latest 350-401 dumps consist of 944 questions to help you prepare.

350-401 dumps 2022

What do I need to do first to pass the Cisco (ENCOR) 350-401 exam?

The Cisco 350-401 exam consists of 90-110 questions that candidates must complete within 120 minutes. The passing score of 350-401 is 825. Cisco ENCOR 350-401 is an exam related to CCNP and CCIE Enterprise certifications.

How can I pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam in 2023?

Thorough preparation is the best way to pass the 350-401 exam. You can easily prepare for the 350-401 ENCOR exam with the help of Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps (Effective Prep Materials).

Where can I get free 350-401 exam preparation materials? 350-401 questions?

Free 350-401 preparation materials are provided here. Take a look below.

New Cisco 350-401 ENCOR exam dumps PDF

You can get a free 350-401 PDF at : https://drive.google.com/file/d/1vd0-M9gbSw691vc5eBP_QxWBmCHD0xju/view?usp=share_link

Cisco 350-401 new dumps questions – Updated 2023

Q1

Which three resources must the hypervisor make available to the virtual machine (Choose three)

A. memory
B. bandwidth
C. IP address
D. processor
E. storage
F. secure access

Correct Answer: ADE

Q2

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer tries to log in to router R1. Which configuration enables a successful login?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Q3

What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint-to-network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

Correct Answer: A

Q4

Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.)

A. golden image selection
B. automation backup
C. proxy configuration
D. application updates
E. system update

Correct Answer: DE

A complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade includes “System Update” and “Application Updates”

Q5

Which two operational models enable an AP to scan one or more wireless channels for rouge access points and at the same time provide wireless services to clients? (Choose two.)

A. Rouge detector
B. Sniffer
C. FlexConnect
D. Local
E. Monitor

Correct Answer: DE

+In a dense RF environment, where maximum rogue access points are suspected, the chances of detecting rogue access points by a local mode access point and FlexConnect mode access point in channel 157 or channel 161 are less when compared to other channels. To mitigate this problem, we recommend that you use dedicated monitor mode
access points.

+The local and FlexConnect mode access points are designed to serve associated clients. These access points spend relatively less time performing off-channel scanning: about 50 milliseconds on each channel. If you want to perform high rogue detection, a monitor mode access point must be used.

Alternatively, you can reduce the scan intervals from 180 seconds to a lesser value, for example, 120 or 60 seconds, ensuring that the radio goes off-channel more frequently,
which improves the chances of rogue detection. However, the access point continues to spend about 50 milliseconds on each channel.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-5/configuration-guide/b_cg75/
b_cg75_chapter_0111001.html

Q6

Which design principle should be followed in a Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployment?

A. The WLC is connected outside of the fabric
B. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay
C. The access point is connected outside of the fabric.
D. The WLC is part of the fabric overlay.

Correct Answer: A

WLC

WLC is connected outside Fabric (optionally directly to Border)

WLC needs to reside in the global routing table – to talk to CP!

No need for inter-VRF leaking for AP to join the WLC

WLC can only belong to one FD. WLC talks to one CP (two for HA)
Access Points

AP is directly connected to FE (or to an extended node switch)

AP is part of the Fabric overlay

AP belongs to the INFRA_VN which is mapped to the global routing table (new in DNAC 1.1)

AP joins the WLC in Local mode

Q7

Which activity requires access to Cisco DNA Center CLI?

A. provisioning a wireless LAN controller
B. creating a configuration template
C. upgrading the Cisco DNA Center software
D. graceful shutdown of Cisco DNA Center

Correct Answer: D

Q8

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that adds a prefix list to a route map and sets the local preference. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Q9

What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

A. EIRP
B. mW
C. dBm
D. dBi

Correct Answer: A

Q10

Refer to the exhibit.

MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and no MTU command has been configured on the tunnel interfaces. What happens when a 1500-byte IPv4 packet traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the DF bit is cleared?

A. The packet arrives on router C without fragmentation.
B. The packet is discarded on router A
C. The packet is discarded on router B
D. The packet arrives on router C fragmented.

Correct Answer: D

Q11

Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be configured for RESTCONF to operate on port 8888?

A. ip http port 8888
B. restconf port 8888
C. ip http restconf port 8888
D. restconf http port 8888

Correct Answer: B

Q12

What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?

A. The RP responds to the PIM join messes with the source of the requested multicast group
B. The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers.
C. The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets.
D. The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.

Correct Answer: D

Multicast Distribution Shared Tree – Unlike source trees that have their root at the source, shared trees use a single common root placed at some chosen point in the network. This shared root is called a rendezvous point (RP).

Source:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9300/software/release/16-5/
configuration_guide/ip_mcast_rtng/b_165_ip_mcast_rtng_9300_cg/b_165_ip_mcast_rtng
_9300_9500_cg_chapter_0100.html

https://netcraftsmen.com/pim-sparse-mode/

Q13

Which data modeling language is commonly used by NETCONF?

A. REST
B. YANG
C. HTML
D. XML

Correct Answer: B

Cisco IOS XE supports the Yet Another Next Generation (YANG) data modeling language. YANG can be used with the Network Configuration Protocol (NETCONF) to provide the desired solution for automated and programmable network operations.

NETCONF(RFC6241) is an XML-based protocol that client applications use to request information from and make configuration changes to the device. YANG is primarily used to model the configuration and state data used by NETCONF operations.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9500/software/release/1
6-5/ configuration_guide/ prog/b_165_prog_9500_cg/data_models.pdf
\

Summary:

Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps can provide you with reliable preparation materials to effectively help you pass the exam.

Get the latest Cisco 350-401 dumps, here.

Sap-c01 study guide

SAP-C01 Exam Dumps Updated – New Practice Material

You need to have solid SAP-C01 practice material to prepare for the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional (SAP-C01) exam. Pass4itSure has new SAP-C01 exam dumps to help you practice valid SAP-C01 exam questions and answers before taking the SAP-C01 exam. Successfully pass the exam and earn AWS Certified Professional certification.

On the Pass4itSure webpage, https://www.pass4itsure.com/aws-solution-architect-professional.html you can download the SAP-C01 exam dumps PDF or choose the software dumps for study.

If you don’t worry, check the quality of the SAP-C01 dumps first, you can download the free SAP-C01 dumps pdf here: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1RiAwWZprUXUDusnixwlaHpuG8tk6KLa9/view?usp=share_link

The SAP-C01 exam is hard, how do you overcome it?

It is necessary to have the right study method, and reliable practice materials to prepare.

Pass4itSure SAP-C01 exam dumps are currently the most popular preparation method and the most reliable learning material.

Get your mind right, practice hard, and you’ll be sure to pass the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional exam.

How long does it take to prepare for the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional exam?

The more the better, so that you will be better prepared. After all, the Amazon SAP-C01 exam is not easy.

If you really don’t have time, then at least 35-40 hours are guaranteed.

Where can I find the latest version of SAP-C01 free dumps for learning?

Here, isn’t there? Questions 1-13 from the free SAP-C01 dumps are provided below.

Alternatively, you can visit the examdemosimulation.com blog for free questions for the full Amazon Certification Exam Series.

Practice With Amazon SAP-C01 Exam Questions Free

NEW QUESTION 1

any company has acquired numerous companies over the past few years. The CIO for any company would like to keep the resources for each acquired company separate. The CIO also would like to enforce a chargeback model where each company pays for the AWS services it uses.

The Solutions Architect is tasked with designing an AWS architecture that allows any company to achieve the following:

1. Implementing a detailed chargeback mechanism to ensure that each company pays for the resources it uses.
2. any company can pay for AWS services for all its companies through a single invoice.
3. Developers in each acquired company have access to resources in their company only.
4. Developers in an acquired company should not be able to affect resources in their company only.
5. A single identity store is used to authenticate Developers across all companies.

Which of the following approaches would meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Create a multi-account strategy with an account per company. Use consolidated billing to ensure that any company needs to pay a single bill only.

B. Create a multi-account strategy with a virtual private cloud (VPC) for each company. Reduce impact across companies by not creating any VPC peering links. As everything is in a single account, there will be a single invoice. Use tagging to create a detailed bill for each company.

C. Create IAM users for each Developer in the account to which they require access. Create policies that allow the users access to all resources in that account. Attach the policies to the IAM user.

D. Create a federated identity store against the company\\’s Active Directory. Create IAM roles with appropriate permissions and set the trust relationships with AWS and the identity store. Use AWS STS to grant users access based on the groups they belong to in the identity store.

E. Create a multi-account strategy with an account per company. For billing purposes, use a tagging solution that uses a tag to identify the company that creates each resource.

Correct Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 2

A company wants to retire its Oracle Solaris NFS storage arrays. The company requires rapid data migration over its internet network connection to a combination of destinations for Amazon S3. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS), and Amazon FSx for Windows File Server. The company also requires a full initial copy, as well as incremental
transfers of changes until the retirement of the storage arrays. All data must be encrypted and checked for integrity.

What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?

A. Configure CloudEndure. Create a project and deploy the CloudEndure agent and token to the storage array. Run the migration plan to start the transfer.
B. Configure AWS DataSync. Configure the DataSync agent and deploy it to the local network. Create a transfer task and start the transfer.
C. Configure the AWS S3 sync command. Configure the AWS client on the client side with credentials. Run the sync command to start the transfer.
D. Configure AWS Transfer (or FTP. Configure the FTP client with credentials. Script the client to connect and sync to start the transfer.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

A company has an environment that has a single AWS account. A solutions architect is reviewing the environment to recommend what the company could improve specifically in terms of access to the AWS Management Console. The company\’s IT support workers currently access the console for administrative tasks, authenticating with the named IAM
users that have been mapped to their job role.

The IT support workers no longer want to maintain both their Active Directory and IAM user accounts. They want to be able to access the console by using their existing Active Directory credentials. The solutions architect is using AWS Single Sign-On (AWS SSO) to implement this functionality.

Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on the AWS SSO feature in Organizations Create and configure a directory in AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory (AWS Managed Microsoft AD) with a two-way trust to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and set the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory.

B. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on the AWS SSO feature in Organizations Create and configure an AD Connector to connect to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and select the AD Connector as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the company\’s Active Directory.

C. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on all features for the organization. Create and configure a directory in AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory (AWS Managed Microsoft AD) with a two-way trust to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and select the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory.

D. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on all features for the organization. Create and configure an AD Connector to connect to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and select the AD Connector as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the company\’s Active Directory.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/single-sign-on/faqs/

NEW QUESTION 4

A software company hosts an application on AWS with resources in multiple AWS accounts and Regions. The application runs on a group of Amazon EC2 instances in an application VPC located in the us-east-1 Region with an IPv4 CIDR block of 10.10.0.0/16. In a different AWS account, a shared services VPC is located in the us-east-2 Region
with an IPv4 CIDR block of 10.10.10.0/24. When a cloud engineer uses AWS CloudFormation to attempt to peer the application VPC with the shared services VPC, an error message indicates a peering failure.

Which factors could cause this error? (Choose two.)

A. The IPv4 CIDR ranges of the two VPCs overlap
B. The VPCs are not in the same Region
C. One or both accounts do not have access to an Internet gateway
D. One of the VPCs was not shared through AWS Resource Access Manager
E. The IAM role in the peer accepter account does not have the correct permissions

Correct Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 5

A financial services company receives a regular data feed from its credit card servicing partner. Approximately 5,000 records are sent every 15 minutes in plaintext, delivered over HTTPS directly into an Amazon S3 bucket with server-side encryption. This feed contains sensitive credit card primary account number (PAN) data. The company needs to
automatically mask the PAN before sending the data to another S3 bucket for additional internal processing.

The company also needs to remove and merge specific fields, and then transform the record into JSON format. Additionally, extra feeds are likely to be added in the future, so any design needs to be easily expandable. Which solutions will meet these requirements?

A. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery that extracts each record and writes it to an Amazon SQS queue. Trigger another Lambda function when new messages arrive in the SQS queue to process the records, writing the results to a temporary location in Amazon S3. Trigger a final Lambda function once the SQS queue is empty to transform the records into JSON format and send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing.

B. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery that extracts each record and writes it to an Amazon SQS queue. Configure an AWS Fargate container application to automatically scale to a single instance when the SQS queue contains messages. Have the application process each record, and transform the record into JSON format. When the queue is empty, send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing and scale down the AWS Fargate instance.

C. Create an AWS Glue crawler and custom classifier based on the data feed formats and build a table definition to match. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery to start an AWS Glue ETL job to transform the entire record according to the processing and transformation requirements. Define the output format as JSON. Once complete, have
the ETL job sends the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing.

D. Create an AWS Glue crawler and custom classifier based upon the data feed formats and build a table definition to match. Perform an Amazon Athena query on file delivery to start an Amazon EMR ETL job to transform the entire record、
according to the processing and transformation requirements. Define the output format as JSON. Once complete, send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing and scale down the EMR cluster.

Correct Answer: C

You can use a Glue crawler to populate the AWS Glue Data Catalog with tables. The Lambda function can be triggered using S3 event notifications when object-create events occur. The Lambda function will then trigger the Glue ETL job to transform the records masking the sensitive data and modifying the output format to JSON. This solution meets all requirements.

Create an AWS Glue crawler and a custom classifier based on the data feed formats and build a table definition to match. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery to start an AWS Glue ETL job to transform the entire record according to the processing and transformation requirements. Define the output format as JSON. Once complete, have the ETL job send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing.

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/glue/latest/dg/trigger-job.html https://d1.awsstatic.com/Products/productname/diagrams/product-page- diagram_Glue_Event-drivenETLPipelines.e24d59bb79a9e24cdba7f43ffd234ec0482a60e2.png

NEW QUESTION 6

A mobile gaming application publishes data continuously to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. An AWS Lambda function processes record from the data stream and write to an Amazon DynamoDB table. The DynamoDB table has an auto scaling policy enabled with the target utilization set to 70%.

For several minutes at the start and end of each day, there is a spike in traffic that often exceeds five times the normal load. The company notices the GetRecords.The IteratorAgeMilliseconds metric of the Kinesis data stream temporarily spikes to over a minute for several minutes. The AWS Lambda function writes ProvisionedThroughputExceededException messages to Amazon CloudWatch Logs during these times, and some records are redirected to the dead letter queue.

No exceptions are thrown by the Kinesis producer on the gaming application. What change should the company make to resolve this issue?

A. Use Application Auto Scaling to set a scaling schedule to scale out write capacity on the DynamoDB table during predictable load spikes.
B. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events to monitor the dead letter queue and invoke a Lambda function to automatically retry failed records.
C. Reduce the DynamoDB table auto-scaling policy\\’s target utilization to 20% to more quickly respond to load spikes.
D. Increase the number of shards in the Kinesis data stream to increase throughput capacity.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

A company prefers to limit running Amazon EC2 instances to those that were launched from AMIs preapproved by the Information Security department. The Development team has an agile continuous integration and deployment process that cannot be stalled by the solution.

Which method enforces the required controls with the LEAST impact on the development process? (Choose two.)

A. Use IAM policies to restrict the ability of users or other automated entities to launch EC2 instances based on a specific set of pre-approved AMIs, such as those tagged in a specific way by Information Security.

B. Use regular scans within Amazon Inspector with a custom assessment template to determine if the EC2 instance that the Amazon Inspector Agent is running on is based upon a pre-approved AMI. If it is not, shut down the instance and inform Information Security by email that this occurred.

C. Only allow the launching of EC2 instances using a centralized DevOps team, which is given work packages via notifications from an internal ticketing system. Users make requests for resources using this ticketing tool, which has manual information security approval steps to ensure that EC2 instances are only launched from approved AMIs.

D. Use AWS Config rules to spot any launches of EC2 instances based on non-approved AMIs, trigger an AWS Lambda function to automatically terminate the instance, and publish a message to an Amazon SNS topic to inform Information Security that this occurred.

E. Use a scheduled AWS Lambda function to scan through the list of running instances within the virtual private cloud (VPC) and determine if any of these are based on unapproved AMIs. Publish a message to an SNS topic to inform Information Security that this occurred and then shut down the instance.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_developrules_gettingstarted.html

NEW QUESTION 8

A user is creating a snapshot of an EBS volume. Which of the below statements is incorrect in relation to the creation of an EBS snapshot?

A. Its incremental
B. It is a point-in-time backup of the EBS volume
C. It can be used to create an AMI
D. It is stored in the same AZ as the volume

Correct Answer: D

The EBS snapshots are a point-in-time backup of the EBS volume. It is an incremental snapshot, but is always specific to the region and never specific to a single AZ. Hence the statement “It is stored in the same AZ as the volume” is incorrect.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/EBSSnapshots.html

NEW QUESTION 9

A company is using an Amazon EMR cluster to run its big data jobs. The cluster\’s jobs are invoked by AWS Step Functions Express Workflows that consume various Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queues. The workload of this solution is variable and unpredictable. Amazon CloudWatch metrics show that the cluster\’s peak utilization is only 25% at times and the cluster sits idle the rest of the time.

A solutions architect must optimize the costs of the cluster without negatively impacting the time it takes to run the various jobs. What is the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements?

A. Modify the EMR cluster by turning on automatic scaling of the core nodes and task nodes with a custom policy that is based on cluster utilization. Purchase Reserved Instance capacity to cover the master node.

B. Modify the EMR cluster to use an instance fleet of Dedicated On-Demand Instances for the master node and core nodes, and to use Spot Instances for the task nodes. Define the target capacity for each node type to cover the load.

C. Purchase Reserved Instances for the master node and core nodes. Terminate all existing task nodes in the EMR cluster.

D. Modify the EMR cluster to use capacity-optimized Spot Instances and a diversified task fleet. Define target capacity for each node type with a mix of On-Demand Instances and Spot Instances.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about Auto Scaling?

A. Auto Scaling can launch instances in different As.
B. Auto Scaling can work with CloudWatch.
C. Auto Scaling can launch an instance at a specific time.
D. Auto Scaling can launch instances in different regions.

Correct Answer: D

Auto Scaling provides an option to scale up and scale down based on certain conditions or triggers from Cloudwatch. A user can configure such that Auto Scaling launches instances across As, but it cannot span across regions.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AutoScaling/latest/DeveloperGuide/as-dg.pdf

NEW QUESTION 11

An eCommerce website running on AWS uses an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance with General Purpose SSD storage. The developers chose an appropriate instance type based on demand and configured 100 GB of storage with a sufficient amount of free space.

The website was running smoothly for a few weeks until a marketing campaign launched. On the second day of the campaign, users reported long wait times and time-outs. Amazon CloudWatch metrics indicated that both reads and writes to the DB instance were experiencing long response times. The CloudWatch metrics show 40% to 50% CPU and
memory utilization and sufficient free storage space are still available.

The application server logs show no evidence of database connectivity issues. What could be the root cause of the issue with the marketing campaign?

A. It exhausted the I/O credit balance due to provisioning low disk storage during the setup phase.

B. It caused the data in the tables to change frequently, requiring indexes to be rebuilt to optimize queries.

C. It exhausted the maximum number of allowed connections to the database instance.

D. It exhausted the network bandwidth available to the RDS for MySQL DB instance.

Correct Answer: A

“When using General Purpose SSD storage, your DB instance receives an initial I/O credit balance of 5.4 million I/O credits. This initial credit balance is enough to sustain a burst performance of 3,000 IOPS for 30 minutes.”

https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/how-to-use-cloudwatch-metrics-to-decide-between-generalpurpose-orprovisioned-iops-for-your-rds-database/

NEW QUESTION 12

A company that develops consumer electronics with offices in Europe and Asia has 60 TB of software images stored on premises in Europe. The company wants to transfer the images to an Amazon S3 bucket in the ap-northeast-1 Region.

New software images are created daily and must be encrypted in transit. The company needs a solution that does not require custom development to automatically transfer all existing and new software images to Amazon S3. What is the next step in the transfer process?

A. Deploy an AWS DataSync agent and configure a task to transfer the images to the S3 bucket
B. Configure Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to transfer the images using S3 Transfer Acceleration
C. Use an AWS Snowball device to transfer the images with the S3 bucket as the target
D. Transfer the images over a Site-to-Site VPN connection using the S3 API with multipart upload

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13

A company uses AWS Organizations to manage one parent account and nine-member accounts. The number of member accounts is expected to grow as the business grows. A security engineer has requested the consolidation of AWS CloudTrail logs into the parent account for compliance purposes. Existing logs currently stored in Amazon S3 buckets in
each individual member account should not be lost. Future member accounts should comply with the logging strategy.

Which operationally efficient solution meets these requirements?

A. Create an AWS Lambda function in each member account with a cross-account role. Trigger the Lambda functions when new CloudTrail logs are created and copy the CloudTrail logs to a centralized S3 bucket. Set up an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to alert if CloudTrail is not configured properly.

B. Configure CloudTrail in each member account to deliver log events to a central S3 bucket. Ensure the central S3 bucket policy allows PutObject access from the member accounts. Migrate existing logs to the central S3 bucket. Set up an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to alert if CloudTrail is not configured properly.

C. Configure an organization-level CloudTrail in the parent account to deliver log events to a central S3 bucket. Migrate the existing CloudTrail logs from each member account to the central S3 bucket. Delete the existing CloudTrail and logs in to the member accounts.

D. Configure an organization-level CloudTrail in the parent account to deliver log events to a central S3 bucket. Configure CloudTrail in each member account to deliver log events to the central S3 bucket.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/architecture/stream-amazon-cloudwatch-logs-to-a-centralizedaccount-foraudit-and-analysis/

Pass4itSure offers new practice material – SAP-C01 exam dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/aws-solution-architect-professional.html With it you will be able to prepare for the exam well and win the test.

N10-008 study guide

N10-008 Dumps [Latest] Prepare For The Exam CompTIA Network+ Study Materials

Pass4itSure has released a new N10-008 dumps (Sep 19, 2022), the new N10-008 dumps is the best sdudy material for you to prepare for the CompTIA Server+ certification exam.

To prepare for the N10-008 exam, then choose Pass4itSure N10-008 dumps and visit Pass4itSure now to get: https://www.pass4itsure.com/n10-008.html 445 mock exam questions and answers to ensure you are ready.

What’s the latest CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam like?

The CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam contains up to 90 questions that need to be answered in 90 minutes. The types of problems are Multiple choice and performance-based. Participants are required to have CompTIA A+ certification and at least 9 to 12 months of networking experience. You need to score 720 on the exam to pass. The exam fee is $358.

Note: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 (English) will be retired on June 30, 2022. Please don’t waste your effort.

How do I learn CompTIA Network+? What are some preparation tips?

First of all, there needs to be a correct way to prepare.
Then, get the appropriate learning resources.
Finally, practice.

Here is a Pass4itSure N10-008 dumps, the perfect learning material to help you prepare for the exam with ease.

In order to better prepare you, we hereby provide you with a free PDF download of N10-008 questions:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/10hUWolzqfGboEgtPpiftWF2rggglAmgE/view?usp=sharing

How to prepare efficiently for the CompTIA N10-008 exam?

Use the latest CompTIA Network+ study materials to prepare for the N10-008 exam.

You can go to the Pass4itSure webpage to get the latest N10-008 dumps (PDF or software) to prepare.

Prepare efficiently for the CompTIA N10-008 exam, is it necessary to have the latest CompTIA Network+ study materials?

Yes, in order to pass effectively, you must have the latest CompTIA Network+ study materials.

To Help You Prepare, N10-008 Free Dumps CompTIA Network+ Practice Questions 2022:

QUESTION 1

A technician is helping to secure a wireless network at a home office and is looking to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network. Which of the following would be the BEST for the technician to do? (Choose two.)

A. Configure MAC filtering.
B. Configure guest network isolation.
C. Enable plug-and-play.
D. Disable the SSID broadcast.
E. Configure a captive portal.
F. Disable unneeded ports.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2

A network administrator is configuring a link-state routing protocol for traffic. Which of the following routing protocols should be implemented?

A. BGP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. RIPv2

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Users at an office site notice the wireless network is unavailable for a short period after a brownout. Which of the following technologies is cost-effective to sustain network equipment during a brief power event?

A. UPS
B. Dual power supplies
C. Generator
D. Redundant circuits

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A technician is documenting an application that is installed on a server and needs to verify all existing web and database connections to the server. Which of the following tools should the technician use to accomplish this task?

A. tracert
B. ipconfig
C. netstat
D. nslookup

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which of the following types of data center architectures will MOST likely be used in a large SDN and can be extended beyond the data center? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI
B. FCoE
C. Three-tiered network
D. Spine and leaf
E. Top-of-rack switching

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6

Which of the following routing protocols is used to exchange route information between public autonomous systems?

A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. EGRIP
D. RIP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

A technician is setting up a new router, configuring ports, and allowing access to the Internet. However, none of the users connected to this new router are able to connect to the Internet. Which of the following does the technician need to configure?

A. Tunneling
B. Multicast routing
C. Network address translation
D. Router advertisement

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

A network engineer has been assigned a support ticket for a PC that will not connect to the network in a new area of the building. The engineer knows the PC should be assigned to the PC VLAN (VLAN 1101) and should have an IP in the 172. 16. 250. 0/22 range. While talking with the hardware team, the engineer is told this is the first PC to be installed in this area The engineer then logs into the edge switch the PC is connected to and looks at the configuration. Given the output below:

Which of the following BEST explains the reason why the PC cannot connect?

A. The VLAN interface is missing.
B. The VLAN is not allowed across the trunk.
C. The PC is in the wrong VLAN.
D. The PC does not have a valid IP.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

A newly installed VoIP phone is not getting the DHCP IP address it needs to connect to the phone system. Which of the following tasks need to be completed to allow the phone to operate correctly?

A. Assign the phone\’s switchport to the correct VLAN
B. Statistically assign the phone\’s gateway address
C. Configure a route on the VoIP network router
D. Implement a VoIP gateway

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A network technician needs to implement a network security control on a switch. The solution needs to be non-invasive and prevent guests and unauthorized users from accessing the company\’s network Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements?

A. Upgrading the firmware
B. Disabling unused ports
C. Reconfiguring the router access list D. Patching and updating

Correct Answer: B

For more questions, please download the full N10-008 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/n10-008.html



VMware

2v0-71.21 Dumps Updated Remarkable Professional VMware Application Modernization Study Guide

Successfully passing the VMware 2V0-71.21 exam is indispensable with the help of the Professional VMware Application Modernization study guide, we have updated the 2V0-71.21 dumps, the latest study guide, to ensure a smooth pass.

2V0-71.21 dumps online https://www.pass4itsure.com/2v0-71-21.html a full set of study guides, and practice materials, enough to pass the VCP-AM 2021 2V0-71.21 exam.

The Pass4itSure 2V0-71.21 dumps update is available with a study guide that helps you test all exam-related topics.

How do you describe the Professional VMware Application Modernization exam?

Exam 2V0-71.21: Professional VMware Application Modernization

It is a 130-minute exam in English with 55 single- and multiple-choice questions. A passing score of 300 (100-500) costs $250.

Exam 2V0-71.21 Resources Have:

  • VCP Community
  • VMware Customer Connect Learning
  • VMware Press
  • VMware Certification Market Place
  • Pass4itSure 2V0-71.21 dumps online

Why are 2V0-71.21 dumps essential to passing the exam?

If you want to be VMware VCP-AM 2021 certified, get a decent job in today’s market. Then you have to pass the exam, but it is not easy to pass.

This is when the 2V0-71.21 dumps appear, which will provide you with a comprehensive study guide and study materials to help you easily pass the Professional VMware Application Modernization exam.

The free updated 2V0-71.21 dumps study materials are as follows

Download the free VMware 2v0-71.21 exam questions

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1633p6fLq4tIMbNzJoiiSgMae_uUIGkF6/view?usp=sharing

Free 2V0-71.21 exam questions online

Q1.What Kubernetes feature would be used to force the scheduler to place instances of the application on different nodes?

A. node affinity/nodeAntiAffinity
B. nodeAuthorization
C. kubectl
D. namespaces


Correct Answer: A

Q2. On VMware vSphere with Tanzu, which attribute identifies the etc Leader node using the vSphere Client?

A. the amount of memory resources
B. the number of Networks
C. number of IP addresses
D. amount of computing resources

Correct Answer: C

Q3. What are the infrastructure services prerequisites to enable Tanzu in vSphere? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DHCP
B. Active directory
C. Firewall
D. DNS
E. NTP

Correct Answer: ADE

Q4. Which upgrade method can be used for an ‘in-place’ Kubernetes update?

A. Run “kubectl patch” command against a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
B. Change the VirtualMachineClass on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
C. Change the number of control plane nodes
D. Change the StorageClass on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster


Correct Answer: A

Q5. How is the Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG) management cluster created?


A. There is no need for a management cluster in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid.
B. The administrator creates the management cluster in vCenter.
C. Download the Kubernetes management agent.
D. The TKG CLI creates a temporary bootstrap cluster.

Correct Answer: D

Q6. What is a standard solution for a Kubernetes administrator to implement pod security?

A. iptables
B. Add check for validating YAML
C. OPA
D. Use a trusted corporate repository

Correct Answer: B

Q7. An administrator needs to deploy the infrastructure for three applications that are being developed. It is required to provide different Kubernetes versions for each application. Which approach satisfies these requirements?

A. Create three different pods for each application.
B. Deploy three different Tanzu Kubernetes Grid workload clusters with different Kubernetes versions.
C. Create three different namespaces for each application.
D. Deploy three different management clusters with different Kubernetes versions.

Correct Answer: D

Q8. What is the MINIMUM required version of vSphere to install Tanzu Kubernetes Grid?

A. 6.0 Update 1
B. 6.5 Update 2
C. 6.7 Update 1
D. 6.7 Update 3

Correct Answer: D

Q9. Which role is required to enable data protection in Tanzu Mission Control?

A. cluster. admin
B. clusters. admin
C. cluster.edit
D. cluster. manage

Correct Answer: A

Q10. Refer to the exhibit.

In the following StorageClass manifest, which field is used to specify the Volume Plugin driver used for the underlying storage array?


A. type
B. name
C. parameters
D. provisioner

Correct Answer: D

Q11. What is the period of time to consider the DISCONNECTED state for a cluster in Tanzu Mission Control?

A. 3 minutes
B. 1 minute
C. 2 minutes
D. 5 minutes

Correct Answer: A

Q12. Which access policy control is used in Tanzu Mission Control?

A. vCenter Server access control
B. Attribute-based access control
C. Role-based access control
D. Active Directory access control

Correct Answer: C

Q13. Which tool is required to install extensions in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid clusters?

A. k9s
B. kubectx
C. knative
D. ytt

Correct Answer: D

Use the updated 2V0-71.21 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/2v0-71-21.html to prepare for the Professional VMware Application Modernization exam.

Microsoft

MB-800 DUMPS [New] To Be The Best MB-800 Exam Preparation

The newly released dumps make the best MB-800 exam preparation to help you easily succeed in the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant exam.

The latest version of MB-800 dumps is available online: https://www.pass4itsure.com/mb-800.html Effective MB-800 dumps Q&A to help you prepare for the MB-800 exam.

What is the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant exam like?

The Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant exam, also known as the MB-800 exam, is one of the Microsoft series of exams. Its language is English and the passing score is 700. A successful pass can earn Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant Associate certification.

We have compiled the following materials for you to study effectively for the exam:

The first is definitely the Pass4itSure MB-800 dumps
Followed by

  • Get started with Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Deploy and configure Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Work with the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central user interface
  • Set up Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central for reporting
  • Set up financial management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Use journals in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Get started with Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Purchase items and services in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Sell ​​items and services in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Return items in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Process customer and vendor payments in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Reconcile bank accounts in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central

How do you beat MB-800 Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant?

Choose MB-800 Dumps – Using the latest Pass4itSure MB-800 dumps covering all syllabuses is your best MB-800 exam preparation material, so practice well and you’ll easily win the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant exam.

Where can I get free MB-800 dumps of Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant preparation materials?

Get free MB-800 dumps in the PDF format for greater preparation: https://drive.google.com/file/d/10cK6516KOvAAuUQhXhoJj5tH-OvodOfE/view?usp=sharing

Finally, you’ll be able to earn free Microsoft MB-800 exam practice questions here to help you learn.

Free MB-800 exam questions (2022.8)

Q-1

DRAG DROP
You need to configure discounting for sales. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area.

Correct Answer:

Q-2

DRAG DROP
A company uses Dynamics 365 Business Central. The company\\’s funds are limited and some invoices that are due cannot be paid on time. You need to prioritize vendors when you suggest vendor payments. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/suggest-vendor-payments-dynamics-365-businesscentral/2-priority

QUESTION 3

HOTSPOT
You need to report profitability by business line. How should you configure the system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP
The accounts payable department of a company processes purchase invoices throughout the month. A vendor sends an invoice at the end of each week that combines all deliveries. The company wants to know how to process this invoice.

You need to explain the steps involved in purchase invoicing. In which order should the steps be performed? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/purchasing-how-to-combine-receipts

QUESTION 5

DRAG DROP
You are creating companies for multiple customers in the cloud-based version of Dynamics 365 Business Central by using the assisted setup guide. You need to create new companies. Which templates should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate templates to the correct requirements.

Each template may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/about-new-company

QUESTION 6

Two cash receipts were applied to a posted sales transaction. The first receipt was applied in error.

You need to remove the first cash receipt from the posted sales transaction. Which set of steps should you perform?

A. 1. Navigate to Unapply Entries from the relevant customer ledger entry.
2. Unapply the second payment.
3. Unapply the first payment.
4. Apply the second payment to the customer ledger entry.

B. 1. Navigate to Reverse Transaction from the relevant detailed customer ledger entry.
2. Reverse the second payment.
3. Reverse the first payment.
4. Apply the second payment to the customer ledger entry.

C. 1. Navigate to Reverse Transaction from the relevant customer ledger entry.
2. Reverse the second payment.
3. Reverse the first payment.
4. Apply the second payment to the customer ledger entry.

D.
1. Post a reversing Cash Receipt and select the customer and relevant payment entry.
2. Navigate to Unapply Entries from the relevant customer ledger entry.
3. Unapply the payment.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/enter-payments-dynamics-365-business-central/3-unapply

QUESTION 7

HOTSPOT
A company is implementing Dynamics 365 Business Central. The accountant must be able to report discounts received on purchased items separately from costs. You need to configure the system to meet the requirement.

How should you configure the system? To answer, select the appropriate configurations in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/purchasing-how-record-purchase-pricediscount-payment-agreements

QUESTION 8

HOTSPOT
You need to resolve the reconciliation issues. How should you complete the setup? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

QUESTION 9

DRAG DROP
You complete the Payment Registration setup. The following options are enabled: Use this account as the default Auto Fill Date received You need to process a single full payment from a customer against the amounts due for two invoices by using the customer
payment registration.

What four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/receivables-how-reconcile-customerpayments-list-unpaid-sales-documents

QUESTION 10

HOTSPOT
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Business Central for a customer. The local currency code (LCY) for the company is set to US dollars ($). The customer plans to set up a bank account. The customer provides the following information for the account:

Account number
Name Address Bank account posting group

The account must meet the following requirements:

Use US dollars.
Use 9075 as the number of the next bank account statement for reconciliation in Business Central.

You need to set up the account for the customer. Which values should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 11

You are creating payment terms. A company processes standard vendor payments on the seventh day of the next month. You need to set up payment terms for the vendor. Which date formula should you use?

A. 37D
B. 1M+7D
C. 1M+6D
D. CM+7D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://business-central.to-increase.com/md/en-US/ui-enter-date-ranges

QUESTION 12

DRAG DROP
You need to configure the purchase order process to meet the auditor\\’s requirements.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13

HOTSPOT
A company uses Dynamics 365 Business Central. You need to ensure that the company can bulk edit data by using the Edit in Excel feature.

What should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/business-central/dev-itpro/administration/configuring-exceladdin

For more Microsoft MB-800 exam practice questions, this website.

Ns0-520 pdf

NS0-520 Exam dUMPS | Useful NetApp NS0-520 Exam Preparation

We have updated the NS0-520 exam dumps to collect all relevant NS0-520 exam questions that are the best and most recent in the entire market. Provides you with useful NetApp NS0-520 exam preparation materials to help you pass the exam.

Enable the NS0-520 exam dumps >> https://www.pass4itsure.com/ns0-520.html (In the NS0-520 exam dumps, there are 60 exam practice questions for you to study and prepare) to effectively prepare for the NS0-520 exam.

A free download of the NCIE-SAN ONTAP NS0-520 exam dumps is available below: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1gDsi1NaCl45hJ3mrpP3EGw-9tU4wSw3-/view?usp=sharing

What is the key message for the NetApp Certified Implementation Engineer – SAN ONTAP exam?

The NetApp NS0-520 exam is licensed by Network Appliance. It is designed to assess candidates’ skills in planning, implementing, and integrating ONTAP SANs, FC switching fabrics, Ethernet iSCSI/FCoE solutions, and different operating systems (Windows, LINUX, ESX, UNIX) and applications.

The exam information is outlined below:

Duration: 60-90 minutes (extra time available in non-English-speaking countries)
Number of questions: 60
Language: English
Passing score: 70%
Certification: NCIE SAN ONTAP
The cost is $150

Why can NS0-520 exam dumps be valid for exam preparation?

The best Pass4itSure NS0-520 exam dumps have proven their approach very efficient and have been adopted by NetApp certifiers worldwide. You can use it confidently that the NS0-520 exam dumps will help you understand the entire exam structure and the types of questions that will be asked in the exam.

The Pass4itSure NS0-520 exam dumps are the best choice for candidates preparing for the NS0-520 exam.

NCIE SAN ONTAP NS0-520 Real Exam Questions and Answers Free

Exam Questions: 13 Updated: Jul 2022

QUESTION 1

Which FC service is used by a host for discovery service to locate FC targets that are available?

A. the fabric zone server
B. the fabric configuration server
C. the fabric name service
D. the fabric security server

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

You have implemented FabricPool on your AFF ASA ONTAP 9.8 cluster. An archived database has become very active, and it requires FabricPool adjustments. Which two steps are required to address this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Set the space guarantee on the volume.
B. Set the tiering policy to none.
C. Use the promote cloud-retrieval-policy.
D. Remove all Snapshot copies.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3

During maintenance of an AFF A250 none, you want to move the SAN LIFs that are members of a port set. In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. You need to disable the zoning of the LIF WWPN.
B. You must disable SLM for the node that hosts the LIF.
C. You must take the SAN LIF offline.
D. The LIF must be removed from the port set.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4

Click the Exhibit button.

You install an ASA AFF A400 system with 32 GB FC SFP+ modules in ports 0e and 0f. After creating the SVM and configuring the FCP protocol, the physical port stays offline. Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?

A. The admin status is manually set to down.
B. The current type of the ports must be configured as an initiator.
C. The current mode for the ports must be set as an NVMe/FC port.
D. The current mode for the ports must be configured as an FC port.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

In a Linux environment, issues are reported concerning multipathing. You want to view the direct and indirect paths. In this scenario, which command would you use to accomplish this task?

A. Use the lspci command.
B. Use the sanlun command.
C. Use the systemctl command.
D. Use the ifconfig command.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

You have an existing 8-node NetApp cluster serving NFS data, and you want to expand your cluster by an additional four nodes to serve iSCSI. In this scenario, where would you validate this configuration?

A. SAN Administration Guide
B. Interoperability Matrix Tool
C. Active IQ Upgrade Advisor
D. Hardware Universe

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You have deployed an AFF A400 system for iSCSI workloads and want to ensure maximum performance to the hosts. In this scenario, which two steps should be configured? (Choose two.)

A. Enable jumbo frames on the broadcast domain.
B. Enable jumbo frames on the IPspace.
C. Enable jumbo frames on the network switch.
D. Enable jumbo frames on the LIF.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8

You are testing FPC path failures on a 2-node NetApp AFF All SAN Array and verifying that persistent ports are correctly enabled. Before testing, a host sees four optimized paths to a LUN. You perform a node takeover and re-check the host. Which statement is true after the node takeover?

A. The host sees two optimized paths and two non-optimized paths to the LUN.
B. The host sees two optimized paths and two dead paths to the LUN.
C. The host sees two non-optimized paths and two dead paths to the LUN.
D. The host sees four optimized paths to the LUN.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

You are reconfiguring a VMware vSphere host for FC access to a NetApp ONTAP cluster.
In this scenario, which two tasks does NetApp recommend performing on the vSphere host? (Choose two.)

A. Use the NetApp Virtual Storage Console to configure the host settings.
B. Set the queue depth on the host to 8.
C. Update the HBA driver.
D. Zone the host by using the host WWNNs.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two actions would you perform to ensure that each host has valid multipathing? (Choose two.)

A. Verity that the VLANs are properly configured on the switches.
B. Verify that the iSCSI service is started on the ONTAP cluster.
C. Verify that ALUA is enabled on the switches.
D. Verify that the VLANs are properly configured on the ONTAP cluster.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11

Which two components should be installed to support VMware VMFS6 datastores in an environment with only Ethernet switches? (Choose two.)

A. Host Utilities
B. NetApp Virtual Storage Console
C. V_StorageAttach license
D. iSCSI license

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12

What are two benefits of implementing VLANs for iSCSI configurations? (Choose two.)

A. increased performance
B. increased resiliency
C. reduced the number of broadcast domains
D. increased security

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13

An administrator is configuring their existing Ethernet network switches to provide iSCSI LUNs to several servers. The network switches are also used for other traffic from various hosts. In this scenario, which statement is true?

A. Use multiple VLANs to isolate iSCSI traffic from other network traffic.
B. Configure the MTU size to be larger on the switch and storage than on the host.
C. Increase the ratio of access ports to trunk ports to 2:1.
D. NetApp recommends using the same LIFs for NFS and iSCSI traffic.

Correct Answer: D

Download the complete NS0-520 exam dumps >> https://www.pass4itsure.com/ns0-520.html to prepare for your NetApp Certified Implementation Engineer – SAN ONTAP exam.

Microsoft

AZ-900 Dumps [New version] Ensure successful AZ-900 Exam preparation materials

Itcertlab has updated the AZ-900 dumps here, which is the AZ-900 exam preparation material to ensure success. If you use it to pass the exam, you are guaranteed to pass the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals exam successfully.

The latest version of the dumps is provided by Pass4itSure, welcome to the download AZ-900 dumps page: https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html A total of 488 practice questions and answers to help you prepare for the exam.

The new AZ-900 dumps for those planning to take the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals exam will help you gain confidence and successfully earn your Microsoft Fundamentals certification.

Are you afraid of not passing the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 exam?

It’s normal to have this kind of psychology. Because the AZ-900 exam is not simple. Without proper guidance and learning resources, it can be difficult for candidates to prepare for the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals exam.

At this time you need to make sure to successfully prepare for the AZ-900 exam – Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps. With it, you don’t have the worries and worries mentioned above.

What do I need to know? AZ-900 exam

The AZ-900 is an introductory-level exam for role-based certification. To pass the exam, you need to have a good understanding of the Azure cloud. It has four different types of questions, each slightly different. It is crucial to determine the right preparation materials for the AZ-900, which can help you pass the exam. You can trust Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps.

You need to know:

Full name of the exam: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Code Name: AZ-900
Prerequisites: Can be used as a test for beginners
Passing Score: 700
Languages: English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), Korean, Spanish, German, French, Indonesian (Indonesia), Arabic (Saudi Arabia), Chinese (Traditional), Italian, Portuguese (Brazil), Russian
Skill:
Describe cloud concepts
Describe Azure architecture and services
Describe Azure management and governance
Official Learning Resources:
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe core Azure concepts
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe core Azure services
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe core solutions and management tools on Azure
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe general security and network security features
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe identity, governance, privacy, and compliance features
Reliable preparation resource: Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps
Certification: Microsoft Certified: Azure Fundamentals

AZ-900 free dumps exam questions answers:

QUESTION # 1

HOTSPOT
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

The VNet will be marked as ‘Non-compliant’ when the policy is assigned. However, it will not be deleted and will continue to function normally.

Azure Policy is a service in Azure that you use to create, assign, and manage policies. These policies enforce different rules and effects over your resources, so those resources stay compliant with your corporate standards and service level agreements.

If there are any existing resources that aren\\’t compliant with a new policy assignment, they appear under Noncompliant resources.\

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/assign-policy-portal

QUESTION # 2

HOTSPOT
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 3

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

You can install the Az PowerShell module locally on Windows, macOS, and Linux. It can also be used from a browser through Azure Cloud Shell or inside a Docker container.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/azure/what-is-azure-powershell?view=azps-6.6.0
https://serverfault.com/questions/323973/how-do-i-access-the-windows-azure-management-portal-from-ubuntu

QUESTION # 4

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

You are currently trying to generate a number of managed Microsoft SQL Server instances in an Azure environment. During the process, you are presented with a notification informing you that the Azure subscription limits must be increased.

You want to make sure that you can complete your task. Solution: You generate a service health alert. Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 5

Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains 5,000 user accounts.
Your company plans to migrate all network resources to Azure and to decommission the on-premises data center. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the impact on users after the planned migration.

What should you recommend?

A. Implement Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
B. Sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C. Instruct all users to change their password
D. Create a guest user account in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for each user

Correct Answer: B

To migrate to Azure and decommission the on-premises data center, you would need to create the 5,000 user accounts in Azure Active Directory. The easy way to do this is to sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You can even sync their passwords to further minimize the impact on users.

The tool you would use to sync the accounts is Azure AD Connect. The Azure Active Directory Connect synchronization services (Azure AD Connect sync) is a main component of Azure AD Connect. It takes care of all the operations that are
related to synchronize identity data between your on-premises environment and Azure AD.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-whatis

QUESTION # 6

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You deploy an Azure resource. The resource becomes unavailable for an extended period due to a service outage. Microsoft will automatically refund your bank account.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed.
B. automatically migrate the resource to another subscription
C. automatically credit your account
D. send you a coupon code that you can redeem for Azure credits

Correct Answer: C

If the SLA for an Azure service is not met, you receive credits for that service and that service only. The credits are deducted from your monthly bill for that service. If you stopped using the service where the SLA was not met, your account would remain in credit for that service. The credits would not be applied to any other services that you may be using.

Service Credits apply only to fees paid for the particular Service, Service Resource, or Service tier for which a Service Level has not been met. In cases where Service Levels apply to individual Service Resources or to separate Service tiers, Service Credits apply only to fees paid for the affected Service Resource or Service tier, as applicable.

The Service Credits awarded in any billing month for a particular Service or Service Resource will not, under any circumstance, exceed your monthly service fees for that Service or Service Resource, as applicable, in the billing month.

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/legal/sla/analysis-services/v1_0/

QUESTION # 7

What is the longest term you can purchase tor Azure Reserved VM Instances?

A. three years
B. four years
C. one year
D. five years

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 8

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You have an Azure virtual network named VNET1 in a resource group named RG1.
You assign an Azure policy specifying that virtual networks are not an allowed resource type in RG1.

VNET1 is deleted automatically. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed
B. is moved automatically to another resource group
C. continues to function normally
D. is now a read-only object

Correct Answer: C

The VNet will be marked as `Non-compliant\’ when the policy is assigned. However, it will not be deleted and will continue to function normally.

Azure Policy is a service in Azure that you use to create, assign, and manage policies. These policies enforce different rules and effects over your resources, so those resources stay compliant with your corporate standards and service level agreements.

If there are any existing resources that aren\’t compliant with a new policy assignment, they appear under Noncompliant resources.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/assign-policy-portal

QUESTION # 9

Your company plans to move several servers to Azure. The company\\’s compliance policy states that a server named FinServer must be on a separate network segment. You are evaluating which Azure services can be used to meet the compliance policy requirements.
Which Azure solution should you recommend?

A. a resource group for FinServer and another resource group for all the other servers
B. a virtual network for FinServer and another virtual network for all the other servers
C. a VPN for FinServer and a virtual network gateway for each other server
D. one resource group for all the servers and a resource lock for FinServer

Correct Answer: B

Networks in Azure are known as virtual networks. A virtual network can have multiple IP address spaces and multiple subnets. Azure automatically routes traffic between different subnets within a virtual network. The question states that FinServer must be on a separate network segment. The only way to separate FinServer from the other servers in
networking terms is to place the server in a different virtual network to the other servers.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-vnet-plan-design-arm

QUESTION # 10

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company plans to purchase Azure.

The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. Solution: Recommend a Standard support plan. Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

The Standard, Professional Direct, and Premier support plans have technical support for engineers via email and phone.

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

QUESTION # 11

HOTSPOT
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
Hot Area:

You can move a VM and its associated resources to a different subscription by using the Azure portal. Moving between subscriptions can be handy if you originally created a VM in a personal subscription and now want to move it to your company\’s subscription to continue your work. You do not need to start the VM in order to move it and
it should continue to run during the move.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/move-vm

QUESTION # 12

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Box 1: Yes
Azure Service Health consists of three components: Azure Status, Azure Service Heath and Azure Resource Health. Azure service health provides a personalized view of the health of the Azure services and regions you\’re using. This is the best place to look for service impacting communications about outages, planned maintenance activities, and other health advisories because the authenticated Azure Service Health experience knows which services and resources you currently use.

To view the health of all other services available in Azure, you would use the Azure Status component of Azure Service Health. Azure status informs you of service outages in Azure on the Azure Status page. The page is a global view of the health of all Azure services across all Azure regions.

Box 2: Yes
The best way to use Service Health is to set up Service Health alerts to notify you via your preferred communication channels when service issues, planned maintenance, or other changes may affect the Azure services and regions you use.

Box 3: No
You can use Resource Health to view the health of a virtual machine. However, you cannot use Resource Health to prevent a service failure affecting the virtual machine.
Azure resource health provides information about the health of your individual cloud resources such as a specific virtual machine instance.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-health/overview

QUESTION # 13

Your company plans 10 migrate all its data and resources to Azure. The company\’s migration plan states that only Platform as a Service (PaaS) solutions must be used in Azure You need to deploy an Azure environment that meets the company\’s migration plan
What should you create?

A. an Azure App Service and Azure SQL databases
B. Azure storage accounts and web server in Azure virtual machines
C. Azure virtual machines. Azure SQL databases, and Azure Storage accounts
D. an Azure App Service and Azure virtual machines that have Microsoft SQL Server installed

Correct Answer: B

free AZ-900 exam questions download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1fWHHMkEXr-OYoQ1RPhShve8CRHDbfXE0/view?usp=sharing

More complete AZ-900 exam questions: https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html