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Sap-c01 study guide

SAP-C01 Exam Dumps Updated – New Practice Material

You need to have solid SAP-C01 practice material to prepare for the AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional (SAP-C01) exam. Pass4itSure has new SAP-C01 exam dumps to help you practice valid SAP-C01 exam questions and answers before taking the SAP-C01 exam. Successfully pass the exam and earn AWS Certified Professional certification.

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The more the better, so that you will be better prepared. After all, the Amazon SAP-C01 exam is not easy.

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Where can I find the latest version of SAP-C01 free dumps for learning?

Here, isn’t there? Questions 1-13 from the free SAP-C01 dumps are provided below.

Alternatively, you can visit the examdemosimulation.com blog for free questions for the full Amazon Certification Exam Series.

Practice With Amazon SAP-C01 Exam Questions Free

NEW QUESTION 1

any company has acquired numerous companies over the past few years. The CIO for any company would like to keep the resources for each acquired company separate. The CIO also would like to enforce a chargeback model where each company pays for the AWS services it uses.

The Solutions Architect is tasked with designing an AWS architecture that allows any company to achieve the following:

1. Implementing a detailed chargeback mechanism to ensure that each company pays for the resources it uses.
2. any company can pay for AWS services for all its companies through a single invoice.
3. Developers in each acquired company have access to resources in their company only.
4. Developers in an acquired company should not be able to affect resources in their company only.
5. A single identity store is used to authenticate Developers across all companies.

Which of the following approaches would meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Create a multi-account strategy with an account per company. Use consolidated billing to ensure that any company needs to pay a single bill only.

B. Create a multi-account strategy with a virtual private cloud (VPC) for each company. Reduce impact across companies by not creating any VPC peering links. As everything is in a single account, there will be a single invoice. Use tagging to create a detailed bill for each company.

C. Create IAM users for each Developer in the account to which they require access. Create policies that allow the users access to all resources in that account. Attach the policies to the IAM user.

D. Create a federated identity store against the company\\’s Active Directory. Create IAM roles with appropriate permissions and set the trust relationships with AWS and the identity store. Use AWS STS to grant users access based on the groups they belong to in the identity store.

E. Create a multi-account strategy with an account per company. For billing purposes, use a tagging solution that uses a tag to identify the company that creates each resource.

Correct Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 2

A company wants to retire its Oracle Solaris NFS storage arrays. The company requires rapid data migration over its internet network connection to a combination of destinations for Amazon S3. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS), and Amazon FSx for Windows File Server. The company also requires a full initial copy, as well as incremental
transfers of changes until the retirement of the storage arrays. All data must be encrypted and checked for integrity.

What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?

A. Configure CloudEndure. Create a project and deploy the CloudEndure agent and token to the storage array. Run the migration plan to start the transfer.
B. Configure AWS DataSync. Configure the DataSync agent and deploy it to the local network. Create a transfer task and start the transfer.
C. Configure the AWS S3 sync command. Configure the AWS client on the client side with credentials. Run the sync command to start the transfer.
D. Configure AWS Transfer (or FTP. Configure the FTP client with credentials. Script the client to connect and sync to start the transfer.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

A company has an environment that has a single AWS account. A solutions architect is reviewing the environment to recommend what the company could improve specifically in terms of access to the AWS Management Console. The company\’s IT support workers currently access the console for administrative tasks, authenticating with the named IAM
users that have been mapped to their job role.

The IT support workers no longer want to maintain both their Active Directory and IAM user accounts. They want to be able to access the console by using their existing Active Directory credentials. The solutions architect is using AWS Single Sign-On (AWS SSO) to implement this functionality.

Which solution will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on the AWS SSO feature in Organizations Create and configure a directory in AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory (AWS Managed Microsoft AD) with a two-way trust to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and set the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory.

B. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on the AWS SSO feature in Organizations Create and configure an AD Connector to connect to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and select the AD Connector as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the company\’s Active Directory.

C. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on all features for the organization. Create and configure a directory in AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory (AWS Managed Microsoft AD) with a two-way trust to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and select the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory.

D. Create an organization in AWS Organizations. Turn on all features for the organization. Create and configure an AD Connector to connect to the company\’s on-premises Active Directory. Configure AWS SSO and select the AD Connector as the identity source. Create permission sets and map them to the existing groups within the company\’s Active Directory.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/single-sign-on/faqs/

NEW QUESTION 4

A software company hosts an application on AWS with resources in multiple AWS accounts and Regions. The application runs on a group of Amazon EC2 instances in an application VPC located in the us-east-1 Region with an IPv4 CIDR block of 10.10.0.0/16. In a different AWS account, a shared services VPC is located in the us-east-2 Region
with an IPv4 CIDR block of 10.10.10.0/24. When a cloud engineer uses AWS CloudFormation to attempt to peer the application VPC with the shared services VPC, an error message indicates a peering failure.

Which factors could cause this error? (Choose two.)

A. The IPv4 CIDR ranges of the two VPCs overlap
B. The VPCs are not in the same Region
C. One or both accounts do not have access to an Internet gateway
D. One of the VPCs was not shared through AWS Resource Access Manager
E. The IAM role in the peer accepter account does not have the correct permissions

Correct Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 5

A financial services company receives a regular data feed from its credit card servicing partner. Approximately 5,000 records are sent every 15 minutes in plaintext, delivered over HTTPS directly into an Amazon S3 bucket with server-side encryption. This feed contains sensitive credit card primary account number (PAN) data. The company needs to
automatically mask the PAN before sending the data to another S3 bucket for additional internal processing.

The company also needs to remove and merge specific fields, and then transform the record into JSON format. Additionally, extra feeds are likely to be added in the future, so any design needs to be easily expandable. Which solutions will meet these requirements?

A. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery that extracts each record and writes it to an Amazon SQS queue. Trigger another Lambda function when new messages arrive in the SQS queue to process the records, writing the results to a temporary location in Amazon S3. Trigger a final Lambda function once the SQS queue is empty to transform the records into JSON format and send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing.

B. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery that extracts each record and writes it to an Amazon SQS queue. Configure an AWS Fargate container application to automatically scale to a single instance when the SQS queue contains messages. Have the application process each record, and transform the record into JSON format. When the queue is empty, send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing and scale down the AWS Fargate instance.

C. Create an AWS Glue crawler and custom classifier based on the data feed formats and build a table definition to match. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery to start an AWS Glue ETL job to transform the entire record according to the processing and transformation requirements. Define the output format as JSON. Once complete, have
the ETL job sends the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing.

D. Create an AWS Glue crawler and custom classifier based upon the data feed formats and build a table definition to match. Perform an Amazon Athena query on file delivery to start an Amazon EMR ETL job to transform the entire record、
according to the processing and transformation requirements. Define the output format as JSON. Once complete, send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing and scale down the EMR cluster.

Correct Answer: C

You can use a Glue crawler to populate the AWS Glue Data Catalog with tables. The Lambda function can be triggered using S3 event notifications when object-create events occur. The Lambda function will then trigger the Glue ETL job to transform the records masking the sensitive data and modifying the output format to JSON. This solution meets all requirements.

Create an AWS Glue crawler and a custom classifier based on the data feed formats and build a table definition to match. Trigger an AWS Lambda function on file delivery to start an AWS Glue ETL job to transform the entire record according to the processing and transformation requirements. Define the output format as JSON. Once complete, have the ETL job send the results to another S3 bucket for internal processing.

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/glue/latest/dg/trigger-job.html https://d1.awsstatic.com/Products/productname/diagrams/product-page- diagram_Glue_Event-drivenETLPipelines.e24d59bb79a9e24cdba7f43ffd234ec0482a60e2.png

NEW QUESTION 6

A mobile gaming application publishes data continuously to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. An AWS Lambda function processes record from the data stream and write to an Amazon DynamoDB table. The DynamoDB table has an auto scaling policy enabled with the target utilization set to 70%.

For several minutes at the start and end of each day, there is a spike in traffic that often exceeds five times the normal load. The company notices the GetRecords.The IteratorAgeMilliseconds metric of the Kinesis data stream temporarily spikes to over a minute for several minutes. The AWS Lambda function writes ProvisionedThroughputExceededException messages to Amazon CloudWatch Logs during these times, and some records are redirected to the dead letter queue.

No exceptions are thrown by the Kinesis producer on the gaming application. What change should the company make to resolve this issue?

A. Use Application Auto Scaling to set a scaling schedule to scale out write capacity on the DynamoDB table during predictable load spikes.
B. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events to monitor the dead letter queue and invoke a Lambda function to automatically retry failed records.
C. Reduce the DynamoDB table auto-scaling policy\\’s target utilization to 20% to more quickly respond to load spikes.
D. Increase the number of shards in the Kinesis data stream to increase throughput capacity.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

A company prefers to limit running Amazon EC2 instances to those that were launched from AMIs preapproved by the Information Security department. The Development team has an agile continuous integration and deployment process that cannot be stalled by the solution.

Which method enforces the required controls with the LEAST impact on the development process? (Choose two.)

A. Use IAM policies to restrict the ability of users or other automated entities to launch EC2 instances based on a specific set of pre-approved AMIs, such as those tagged in a specific way by Information Security.

B. Use regular scans within Amazon Inspector with a custom assessment template to determine if the EC2 instance that the Amazon Inspector Agent is running on is based upon a pre-approved AMI. If it is not, shut down the instance and inform Information Security by email that this occurred.

C. Only allow the launching of EC2 instances using a centralized DevOps team, which is given work packages via notifications from an internal ticketing system. Users make requests for resources using this ticketing tool, which has manual information security approval steps to ensure that EC2 instances are only launched from approved AMIs.

D. Use AWS Config rules to spot any launches of EC2 instances based on non-approved AMIs, trigger an AWS Lambda function to automatically terminate the instance, and publish a message to an Amazon SNS topic to inform Information Security that this occurred.

E. Use a scheduled AWS Lambda function to scan through the list of running instances within the virtual private cloud (VPC) and determine if any of these are based on unapproved AMIs. Publish a message to an SNS topic to inform Information Security that this occurred and then shut down the instance.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_developrules_gettingstarted.html

NEW QUESTION 8

A user is creating a snapshot of an EBS volume. Which of the below statements is incorrect in relation to the creation of an EBS snapshot?

A. Its incremental
B. It is a point-in-time backup of the EBS volume
C. It can be used to create an AMI
D. It is stored in the same AZ as the volume

Correct Answer: D

The EBS snapshots are a point-in-time backup of the EBS volume. It is an incremental snapshot, but is always specific to the region and never specific to a single AZ. Hence the statement “It is stored in the same AZ as the volume” is incorrect.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/EBSSnapshots.html

NEW QUESTION 9

A company is using an Amazon EMR cluster to run its big data jobs. The cluster\’s jobs are invoked by AWS Step Functions Express Workflows that consume various Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queues. The workload of this solution is variable and unpredictable. Amazon CloudWatch metrics show that the cluster\’s peak utilization is only 25% at times and the cluster sits idle the rest of the time.

A solutions architect must optimize the costs of the cluster without negatively impacting the time it takes to run the various jobs. What is the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements?

A. Modify the EMR cluster by turning on automatic scaling of the core nodes and task nodes with a custom policy that is based on cluster utilization. Purchase Reserved Instance capacity to cover the master node.

B. Modify the EMR cluster to use an instance fleet of Dedicated On-Demand Instances for the master node and core nodes, and to use Spot Instances for the task nodes. Define the target capacity for each node type to cover the load.

C. Purchase Reserved Instances for the master node and core nodes. Terminate all existing task nodes in the EMR cluster.

D. Modify the EMR cluster to use capacity-optimized Spot Instances and a diversified task fleet. Define target capacity for each node type with a mix of On-Demand Instances and Spot Instances.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about Auto Scaling?

A. Auto Scaling can launch instances in different As.
B. Auto Scaling can work with CloudWatch.
C. Auto Scaling can launch an instance at a specific time.
D. Auto Scaling can launch instances in different regions.

Correct Answer: D

Auto Scaling provides an option to scale up and scale down based on certain conditions or triggers from Cloudwatch. A user can configure such that Auto Scaling launches instances across As, but it cannot span across regions.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AutoScaling/latest/DeveloperGuide/as-dg.pdf

NEW QUESTION 11

An eCommerce website running on AWS uses an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance with General Purpose SSD storage. The developers chose an appropriate instance type based on demand and configured 100 GB of storage with a sufficient amount of free space.

The website was running smoothly for a few weeks until a marketing campaign launched. On the second day of the campaign, users reported long wait times and time-outs. Amazon CloudWatch metrics indicated that both reads and writes to the DB instance were experiencing long response times. The CloudWatch metrics show 40% to 50% CPU and
memory utilization and sufficient free storage space are still available.

The application server logs show no evidence of database connectivity issues. What could be the root cause of the issue with the marketing campaign?

A. It exhausted the I/O credit balance due to provisioning low disk storage during the setup phase.

B. It caused the data in the tables to change frequently, requiring indexes to be rebuilt to optimize queries.

C. It exhausted the maximum number of allowed connections to the database instance.

D. It exhausted the network bandwidth available to the RDS for MySQL DB instance.

Correct Answer: A

“When using General Purpose SSD storage, your DB instance receives an initial I/O credit balance of 5.4 million I/O credits. This initial credit balance is enough to sustain a burst performance of 3,000 IOPS for 30 minutes.”

https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/how-to-use-cloudwatch-metrics-to-decide-between-generalpurpose-orprovisioned-iops-for-your-rds-database/

NEW QUESTION 12

A company that develops consumer electronics with offices in Europe and Asia has 60 TB of software images stored on premises in Europe. The company wants to transfer the images to an Amazon S3 bucket in the ap-northeast-1 Region.

New software images are created daily and must be encrypted in transit. The company needs a solution that does not require custom development to automatically transfer all existing and new software images to Amazon S3. What is the next step in the transfer process?

A. Deploy an AWS DataSync agent and configure a task to transfer the images to the S3 bucket
B. Configure Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to transfer the images using S3 Transfer Acceleration
C. Use an AWS Snowball device to transfer the images with the S3 bucket as the target
D. Transfer the images over a Site-to-Site VPN connection using the S3 API with multipart upload

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13

A company uses AWS Organizations to manage one parent account and nine-member accounts. The number of member accounts is expected to grow as the business grows. A security engineer has requested the consolidation of AWS CloudTrail logs into the parent account for compliance purposes. Existing logs currently stored in Amazon S3 buckets in
each individual member account should not be lost. Future member accounts should comply with the logging strategy.

Which operationally efficient solution meets these requirements?

A. Create an AWS Lambda function in each member account with a cross-account role. Trigger the Lambda functions when new CloudTrail logs are created and copy the CloudTrail logs to a centralized S3 bucket. Set up an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to alert if CloudTrail is not configured properly.

B. Configure CloudTrail in each member account to deliver log events to a central S3 bucket. Ensure the central S3 bucket policy allows PutObject access from the member accounts. Migrate existing logs to the central S3 bucket. Set up an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to alert if CloudTrail is not configured properly.

C. Configure an organization-level CloudTrail in the parent account to deliver log events to a central S3 bucket. Migrate the existing CloudTrail logs from each member account to the central S3 bucket. Delete the existing CloudTrail and logs in to the member accounts.

D. Configure an organization-level CloudTrail in the parent account to deliver log events to a central S3 bucket. Configure CloudTrail in each member account to deliver log events to the central S3 bucket.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/architecture/stream-amazon-cloudwatch-logs-to-a-centralizedaccount-foraudit-and-analysis/

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N10-008 study guide

N10-008 Dumps [Latest] Prepare For The Exam CompTIA Network+ Study Materials

Pass4itSure has released a new N10-008 dumps (Sep 19, 2022), the new N10-008 dumps is the best sdudy material for you to prepare for the CompTIA Server+ certification exam.

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What’s the latest CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam like?

The CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam contains up to 90 questions that need to be answered in 90 minutes. The types of problems are Multiple choice and performance-based. Participants are required to have CompTIA A+ certification and at least 9 to 12 months of networking experience. You need to score 720 on the exam to pass. The exam fee is $358.

Note: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 (English) will be retired on June 30, 2022. Please don’t waste your effort.

How do I learn CompTIA Network+? What are some preparation tips?

First of all, there needs to be a correct way to prepare.
Then, get the appropriate learning resources.
Finally, practice.

Here is a Pass4itSure N10-008 dumps, the perfect learning material to help you prepare for the exam with ease.

In order to better prepare you, we hereby provide you with a free PDF download of N10-008 questions:

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To Help You Prepare, N10-008 Free Dumps CompTIA Network+ Practice Questions 2022:

QUESTION 1

A technician is helping to secure a wireless network at a home office and is looking to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network. Which of the following would be the BEST for the technician to do? (Choose two.)

A. Configure MAC filtering.
B. Configure guest network isolation.
C. Enable plug-and-play.
D. Disable the SSID broadcast.
E. Configure a captive portal.
F. Disable unneeded ports.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2

A network administrator is configuring a link-state routing protocol for traffic. Which of the following routing protocols should be implemented?

A. BGP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. RIPv2

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Users at an office site notice the wireless network is unavailable for a short period after a brownout. Which of the following technologies is cost-effective to sustain network equipment during a brief power event?

A. UPS
B. Dual power supplies
C. Generator
D. Redundant circuits

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A technician is documenting an application that is installed on a server and needs to verify all existing web and database connections to the server. Which of the following tools should the technician use to accomplish this task?

A. tracert
B. ipconfig
C. netstat
D. nslookup

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which of the following types of data center architectures will MOST likely be used in a large SDN and can be extended beyond the data center? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI
B. FCoE
C. Three-tiered network
D. Spine and leaf
E. Top-of-rack switching

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6

Which of the following routing protocols is used to exchange route information between public autonomous systems?

A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. EGRIP
D. RIP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

A technician is setting up a new router, configuring ports, and allowing access to the Internet. However, none of the users connected to this new router are able to connect to the Internet. Which of the following does the technician need to configure?

A. Tunneling
B. Multicast routing
C. Network address translation
D. Router advertisement

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

A network engineer has been assigned a support ticket for a PC that will not connect to the network in a new area of the building. The engineer knows the PC should be assigned to the PC VLAN (VLAN 1101) and should have an IP in the 172. 16. 250. 0/22 range. While talking with the hardware team, the engineer is told this is the first PC to be installed in this area The engineer then logs into the edge switch the PC is connected to and looks at the configuration. Given the output below:

Which of the following BEST explains the reason why the PC cannot connect?

A. The VLAN interface is missing.
B. The VLAN is not allowed across the trunk.
C. The PC is in the wrong VLAN.
D. The PC does not have a valid IP.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

A newly installed VoIP phone is not getting the DHCP IP address it needs to connect to the phone system. Which of the following tasks need to be completed to allow the phone to operate correctly?

A. Assign the phone\’s switchport to the correct VLAN
B. Statistically assign the phone\’s gateway address
C. Configure a route on the VoIP network router
D. Implement a VoIP gateway

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

A network technician needs to implement a network security control on a switch. The solution needs to be non-invasive and prevent guests and unauthorized users from accessing the company\’s network Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements?

A. Upgrading the firmware
B. Disabling unused ports
C. Reconfiguring the router access list D. Patching and updating

Correct Answer: B

For more questions, please download the full N10-008 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/n10-008.html



VMware

2v0-71.21 Dumps Updated Remarkable Professional VMware Application Modernization Study Guide

Successfully passing the VMware 2V0-71.21 exam is indispensable with the help of the Professional VMware Application Modernization study guide, we have updated the 2V0-71.21 dumps, the latest study guide, to ensure a smooth pass.

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Exam 2V0-71.21: Professional VMware Application Modernization

It is a 130-minute exam in English with 55 single- and multiple-choice questions. A passing score of 300 (100-500) costs $250.

Exam 2V0-71.21 Resources Have:

  • VCP Community
  • VMware Customer Connect Learning
  • VMware Press
  • VMware Certification Market Place
  • Pass4itSure 2V0-71.21 dumps online

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The free updated 2V0-71.21 dumps study materials are as follows

Download the free VMware 2v0-71.21 exam questions

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1633p6fLq4tIMbNzJoiiSgMae_uUIGkF6/view?usp=sharing

Free 2V0-71.21 exam questions online

Q1.What Kubernetes feature would be used to force the scheduler to place instances of the application on different nodes?

A. node affinity/nodeAntiAffinity
B. nodeAuthorization
C. kubectl
D. namespaces


Correct Answer: A

Q2. On VMware vSphere with Tanzu, which attribute identifies the etc Leader node using the vSphere Client?

A. the amount of memory resources
B. the number of Networks
C. number of IP addresses
D. amount of computing resources

Correct Answer: C

Q3. What are the infrastructure services prerequisites to enable Tanzu in vSphere? (Choose all that apply.)

A. DHCP
B. Active directory
C. Firewall
D. DNS
E. NTP

Correct Answer: ADE

Q4. Which upgrade method can be used for an ‘in-place’ Kubernetes update?

A. Run “kubectl patch” command against a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
B. Change the VirtualMachineClass on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster
C. Change the number of control plane nodes
D. Change the StorageClass on a Tanzu Kubernetes cluster


Correct Answer: A

Q5. How is the Tanzu Kubernetes Grid (TKG) management cluster created?


A. There is no need for a management cluster in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid.
B. The administrator creates the management cluster in vCenter.
C. Download the Kubernetes management agent.
D. The TKG CLI creates a temporary bootstrap cluster.

Correct Answer: D

Q6. What is a standard solution for a Kubernetes administrator to implement pod security?

A. iptables
B. Add check for validating YAML
C. OPA
D. Use a trusted corporate repository

Correct Answer: B

Q7. An administrator needs to deploy the infrastructure for three applications that are being developed. It is required to provide different Kubernetes versions for each application. Which approach satisfies these requirements?

A. Create three different pods for each application.
B. Deploy three different Tanzu Kubernetes Grid workload clusters with different Kubernetes versions.
C. Create three different namespaces for each application.
D. Deploy three different management clusters with different Kubernetes versions.

Correct Answer: D

Q8. What is the MINIMUM required version of vSphere to install Tanzu Kubernetes Grid?

A. 6.0 Update 1
B. 6.5 Update 2
C. 6.7 Update 1
D. 6.7 Update 3

Correct Answer: D

Q9. Which role is required to enable data protection in Tanzu Mission Control?

A. cluster. admin
B. clusters. admin
C. cluster.edit
D. cluster. manage

Correct Answer: A

Q10. Refer to the exhibit.

In the following StorageClass manifest, which field is used to specify the Volume Plugin driver used for the underlying storage array?


A. type
B. name
C. parameters
D. provisioner

Correct Answer: D

Q11. What is the period of time to consider the DISCONNECTED state for a cluster in Tanzu Mission Control?

A. 3 minutes
B. 1 minute
C. 2 minutes
D. 5 minutes

Correct Answer: A

Q12. Which access policy control is used in Tanzu Mission Control?

A. vCenter Server access control
B. Attribute-based access control
C. Role-based access control
D. Active Directory access control

Correct Answer: C

Q13. Which tool is required to install extensions in Tanzu Kubernetes Grid clusters?

A. k9s
B. kubectx
C. knative
D. ytt

Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft

MB-800 DUMPS [New] To Be The Best MB-800 Exam Preparation

The newly released dumps make the best MB-800 exam preparation to help you easily succeed in the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant exam.

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What is the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant exam like?

The Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant exam, also known as the MB-800 exam, is one of the Microsoft series of exams. Its language is English and the passing score is 700. A successful pass can earn Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant Associate certification.

We have compiled the following materials for you to study effectively for the exam:

The first is definitely the Pass4itSure MB-800 dumps
Followed by

  • Get started with Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Deploy and configure Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Work with the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central user interface
  • Set up Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central for reporting
  • Set up financial management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Use journals in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Get started with Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Purchase items and services in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Sell ​​items and services in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Return items in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Process customer and vendor payments in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central
  • Reconcile bank accounts in Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central

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Free MB-800 exam questions (2022.8)

Q-1

DRAG DROP
You need to configure discounting for sales. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area.

Correct Answer:

Q-2

DRAG DROP
A company uses Dynamics 365 Business Central. The company\\’s funds are limited and some invoices that are due cannot be paid on time. You need to prioritize vendors when you suggest vendor payments. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/suggest-vendor-payments-dynamics-365-businesscentral/2-priority

QUESTION 3

HOTSPOT
You need to report profitability by business line. How should you configure the system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4

DRAG DROP
The accounts payable department of a company processes purchase invoices throughout the month. A vendor sends an invoice at the end of each week that combines all deliveries. The company wants to know how to process this invoice.

You need to explain the steps involved in purchase invoicing. In which order should the steps be performed? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/purchasing-how-to-combine-receipts

QUESTION 5

DRAG DROP
You are creating companies for multiple customers in the cloud-based version of Dynamics 365 Business Central by using the assisted setup guide. You need to create new companies. Which templates should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate templates to the correct requirements.

Each template may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/about-new-company

QUESTION 6

Two cash receipts were applied to a posted sales transaction. The first receipt was applied in error.

You need to remove the first cash receipt from the posted sales transaction. Which set of steps should you perform?

A. 1. Navigate to Unapply Entries from the relevant customer ledger entry.
2. Unapply the second payment.
3. Unapply the first payment.
4. Apply the second payment to the customer ledger entry.

B. 1. Navigate to Reverse Transaction from the relevant detailed customer ledger entry.
2. Reverse the second payment.
3. Reverse the first payment.
4. Apply the second payment to the customer ledger entry.

C. 1. Navigate to Reverse Transaction from the relevant customer ledger entry.
2. Reverse the second payment.
3. Reverse the first payment.
4. Apply the second payment to the customer ledger entry.

D.
1. Post a reversing Cash Receipt and select the customer and relevant payment entry.
2. Navigate to Unapply Entries from the relevant customer ledger entry.
3. Unapply the payment.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/enter-payments-dynamics-365-business-central/3-unapply

QUESTION 7

HOTSPOT
A company is implementing Dynamics 365 Business Central. The accountant must be able to report discounts received on purchased items separately from costs. You need to configure the system to meet the requirement.

How should you configure the system? To answer, select the appropriate configurations in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/purchasing-how-record-purchase-pricediscount-payment-agreements

QUESTION 8

HOTSPOT
You need to resolve the reconciliation issues. How should you complete the setup? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

QUESTION 9

DRAG DROP
You complete the Payment Registration setup. The following options are enabled: Use this account as the default Auto Fill Date received You need to process a single full payment from a customer against the amounts due for two invoices by using the customer
payment registration.

What four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/business-central/receivables-how-reconcile-customerpayments-list-unpaid-sales-documents

QUESTION 10

HOTSPOT
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Business Central for a customer. The local currency code (LCY) for the company is set to US dollars ($). The customer plans to set up a bank account. The customer provides the following information for the account:

Account number
Name Address Bank account posting group

The account must meet the following requirements:

Use US dollars.
Use 9075 as the number of the next bank account statement for reconciliation in Business Central.

You need to set up the account for the customer. Which values should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 11

You are creating payment terms. A company processes standard vendor payments on the seventh day of the next month. You need to set up payment terms for the vendor. Which date formula should you use?

A. 37D
B. 1M+7D
C. 1M+6D
D. CM+7D

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://business-central.to-increase.com/md/en-US/ui-enter-date-ranges

QUESTION 12

DRAG DROP
You need to configure the purchase order process to meet the auditor\\’s requirements.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13

HOTSPOT
A company uses Dynamics 365 Business Central. You need to ensure that the company can bulk edit data by using the Edit in Excel feature.

What should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/business-central/dev-itpro/administration/configuring-exceladdin

For more Microsoft MB-800 exam practice questions, this website.

Ns0-520 pdf

NS0-520 Exam dUMPS | Useful NetApp NS0-520 Exam Preparation

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The exam information is outlined below:

Duration: 60-90 minutes (extra time available in non-English-speaking countries)
Number of questions: 60
Language: English
Passing score: 70%
Certification: NCIE SAN ONTAP
The cost is $150

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NCIE SAN ONTAP NS0-520 Real Exam Questions and Answers Free

Exam Questions: 13 Updated: Jul 2022

QUESTION 1

Which FC service is used by a host for discovery service to locate FC targets that are available?

A. the fabric zone server
B. the fabric configuration server
C. the fabric name service
D. the fabric security server

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

You have implemented FabricPool on your AFF ASA ONTAP 9.8 cluster. An archived database has become very active, and it requires FabricPool adjustments. Which two steps are required to address this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Set the space guarantee on the volume.
B. Set the tiering policy to none.
C. Use the promote cloud-retrieval-policy.
D. Remove all Snapshot copies.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3

During maintenance of an AFF A250 none, you want to move the SAN LIFs that are members of a port set. In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. You need to disable the zoning of the LIF WWPN.
B. You must disable SLM for the node that hosts the LIF.
C. You must take the SAN LIF offline.
D. The LIF must be removed from the port set.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4

Click the Exhibit button.

You install an ASA AFF A400 system with 32 GB FC SFP+ modules in ports 0e and 0f. After creating the SVM and configuring the FCP protocol, the physical port stays offline. Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?

A. The admin status is manually set to down.
B. The current type of the ports must be configured as an initiator.
C. The current mode for the ports must be set as an NVMe/FC port.
D. The current mode for the ports must be configured as an FC port.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

In a Linux environment, issues are reported concerning multipathing. You want to view the direct and indirect paths. In this scenario, which command would you use to accomplish this task?

A. Use the lspci command.
B. Use the sanlun command.
C. Use the systemctl command.
D. Use the ifconfig command.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6

You have an existing 8-node NetApp cluster serving NFS data, and you want to expand your cluster by an additional four nodes to serve iSCSI. In this scenario, where would you validate this configuration?

A. SAN Administration Guide
B. Interoperability Matrix Tool
C. Active IQ Upgrade Advisor
D. Hardware Universe

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

You have deployed an AFF A400 system for iSCSI workloads and want to ensure maximum performance to the hosts. In this scenario, which two steps should be configured? (Choose two.)

A. Enable jumbo frames on the broadcast domain.
B. Enable jumbo frames on the IPspace.
C. Enable jumbo frames on the network switch.
D. Enable jumbo frames on the LIF.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8

You are testing FPC path failures on a 2-node NetApp AFF All SAN Array and verifying that persistent ports are correctly enabled. Before testing, a host sees four optimized paths to a LUN. You perform a node takeover and re-check the host. Which statement is true after the node takeover?

A. The host sees two optimized paths and two non-optimized paths to the LUN.
B. The host sees two optimized paths and two dead paths to the LUN.
C. The host sees two non-optimized paths and two dead paths to the LUN.
D. The host sees four optimized paths to the LUN.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

You are reconfiguring a VMware vSphere host for FC access to a NetApp ONTAP cluster.
In this scenario, which two tasks does NetApp recommend performing on the vSphere host? (Choose two.)

A. Use the NetApp Virtual Storage Console to configure the host settings.
B. Set the queue depth on the host to 8.
C. Update the HBA driver.
D. Zone the host by using the host WWNNs.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two actions would you perform to ensure that each host has valid multipathing? (Choose two.)

A. Verity that the VLANs are properly configured on the switches.
B. Verify that the iSCSI service is started on the ONTAP cluster.
C. Verify that ALUA is enabled on the switches.
D. Verify that the VLANs are properly configured on the ONTAP cluster.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11

Which two components should be installed to support VMware VMFS6 datastores in an environment with only Ethernet switches? (Choose two.)

A. Host Utilities
B. NetApp Virtual Storage Console
C. V_StorageAttach license
D. iSCSI license

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12

What are two benefits of implementing VLANs for iSCSI configurations? (Choose two.)

A. increased performance
B. increased resiliency
C. reduced the number of broadcast domains
D. increased security

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13

An administrator is configuring their existing Ethernet network switches to provide iSCSI LUNs to several servers. The network switches are also used for other traffic from various hosts. In this scenario, which statement is true?

A. Use multiple VLANs to isolate iSCSI traffic from other network traffic.
B. Configure the MTU size to be larger on the switch and storage than on the host.
C. Increase the ratio of access ports to trunk ports to 2:1.
D. NetApp recommends using the same LIFs for NFS and iSCSI traffic.

Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft

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You need to know:

Full name of the exam: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals
Code Name: AZ-900
Prerequisites: Can be used as a test for beginners
Passing Score: 700
Languages: English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), Korean, Spanish, German, French, Indonesian (Indonesia), Arabic (Saudi Arabia), Chinese (Traditional), Italian, Portuguese (Brazil), Russian
Skill:
Describe cloud concepts
Describe Azure architecture and services
Describe Azure management and governance
Official Learning Resources:
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe core Azure concepts
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe core Azure services
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe core solutions and management tools on Azure
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe general security and network security features
Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: Describe identity, governance, privacy, and compliance features
Reliable preparation resource: Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps
Certification: Microsoft Certified: Azure Fundamentals

AZ-900 free dumps exam questions answers:

QUESTION # 1

HOTSPOT
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

The VNet will be marked as ‘Non-compliant’ when the policy is assigned. However, it will not be deleted and will continue to function normally.

Azure Policy is a service in Azure that you use to create, assign, and manage policies. These policies enforce different rules and effects over your resources, so those resources stay compliant with your corporate standards and service level agreements.

If there are any existing resources that aren\\’t compliant with a new policy assignment, they appear under Noncompliant resources.\

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/assign-policy-portal

QUESTION # 2

HOTSPOT
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 3

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

You can install the Az PowerShell module locally on Windows, macOS, and Linux. It can also be used from a browser through Azure Cloud Shell or inside a Docker container.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/azure/what-is-azure-powershell?view=azps-6.6.0
https://serverfault.com/questions/323973/how-do-i-access-the-windows-azure-management-portal-from-ubuntu

QUESTION # 4

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

You are currently trying to generate a number of managed Microsoft SQL Server instances in an Azure environment. During the process, you are presented with a notification informing you that the Azure subscription limits must be increased.

You want to make sure that you can complete your task. Solution: You generate a service health alert. Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 5

Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains 5,000 user accounts.
Your company plans to migrate all network resources to Azure and to decommission the on-premises data center. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the impact on users after the planned migration.

What should you recommend?

A. Implement Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
B. Sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C. Instruct all users to change their password
D. Create a guest user account in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for each user

Correct Answer: B

To migrate to Azure and decommission the on-premises data center, you would need to create the 5,000 user accounts in Azure Active Directory. The easy way to do this is to sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You can even sync their passwords to further minimize the impact on users.

The tool you would use to sync the accounts is Azure AD Connect. The Azure Active Directory Connect synchronization services (Azure AD Connect sync) is a main component of Azure AD Connect. It takes care of all the operations that are
related to synchronize identity data between your on-premises environment and Azure AD.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-whatis

QUESTION # 6

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You deploy an Azure resource. The resource becomes unavailable for an extended period due to a service outage. Microsoft will automatically refund your bank account.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed.
B. automatically migrate the resource to another subscription
C. automatically credit your account
D. send you a coupon code that you can redeem for Azure credits

Correct Answer: C

If the SLA for an Azure service is not met, you receive credits for that service and that service only. The credits are deducted from your monthly bill for that service. If you stopped using the service where the SLA was not met, your account would remain in credit for that service. The credits would not be applied to any other services that you may be using.

Service Credits apply only to fees paid for the particular Service, Service Resource, or Service tier for which a Service Level has not been met. In cases where Service Levels apply to individual Service Resources or to separate Service tiers, Service Credits apply only to fees paid for the affected Service Resource or Service tier, as applicable.

The Service Credits awarded in any billing month for a particular Service or Service Resource will not, under any circumstance, exceed your monthly service fees for that Service or Service Resource, as applicable, in the billing month.

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/legal/sla/analysis-services/v1_0/

QUESTION # 7

What is the longest term you can purchase tor Azure Reserved VM Instances?

A. three years
B. four years
C. one year
D. five years

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 8

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You have an Azure virtual network named VNET1 in a resource group named RG1.
You assign an Azure policy specifying that virtual networks are not an allowed resource type in RG1.

VNET1 is deleted automatically. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed
B. is moved automatically to another resource group
C. continues to function normally
D. is now a read-only object

Correct Answer: C

The VNet will be marked as `Non-compliant\’ when the policy is assigned. However, it will not be deleted and will continue to function normally.

Azure Policy is a service in Azure that you use to create, assign, and manage policies. These policies enforce different rules and effects over your resources, so those resources stay compliant with your corporate standards and service level agreements.

If there are any existing resources that aren\’t compliant with a new policy assignment, they appear under Noncompliant resources.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/assign-policy-portal

QUESTION # 9

Your company plans to move several servers to Azure. The company\\’s compliance policy states that a server named FinServer must be on a separate network segment. You are evaluating which Azure services can be used to meet the compliance policy requirements.
Which Azure solution should you recommend?

A. a resource group for FinServer and another resource group for all the other servers
B. a virtual network for FinServer and another virtual network for all the other servers
C. a VPN for FinServer and a virtual network gateway for each other server
D. one resource group for all the servers and a resource lock for FinServer

Correct Answer: B

Networks in Azure are known as virtual networks. A virtual network can have multiple IP address spaces and multiple subnets. Azure automatically routes traffic between different subnets within a virtual network. The question states that FinServer must be on a separate network segment. The only way to separate FinServer from the other servers in
networking terms is to place the server in a different virtual network to the other servers.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-vnet-plan-design-arm

QUESTION # 10

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company plans to purchase Azure.

The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. Solution: Recommend a Standard support plan. Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: A

The Standard, Professional Direct, and Premier support plans have technical support for engineers via email and phone.

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

QUESTION # 11

HOTSPOT
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
Hot Area:

You can move a VM and its associated resources to a different subscription by using the Azure portal. Moving between subscriptions can be handy if you originally created a VM in a personal subscription and now want to move it to your company\’s subscription to continue your work. You do not need to start the VM in order to move it and
it should continue to run during the move.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/move-vm

QUESTION # 12

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Box 1: Yes
Azure Service Health consists of three components: Azure Status, Azure Service Heath and Azure Resource Health. Azure service health provides a personalized view of the health of the Azure services and regions you\’re using. This is the best place to look for service impacting communications about outages, planned maintenance activities, and other health advisories because the authenticated Azure Service Health experience knows which services and resources you currently use.

To view the health of all other services available in Azure, you would use the Azure Status component of Azure Service Health. Azure status informs you of service outages in Azure on the Azure Status page. The page is a global view of the health of all Azure services across all Azure regions.

Box 2: Yes
The best way to use Service Health is to set up Service Health alerts to notify you via your preferred communication channels when service issues, planned maintenance, or other changes may affect the Azure services and regions you use.

Box 3: No
You can use Resource Health to view the health of a virtual machine. However, you cannot use Resource Health to prevent a service failure affecting the virtual machine.
Azure resource health provides information about the health of your individual cloud resources such as a specific virtual machine instance.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-health/overview

QUESTION # 13

Your company plans 10 migrate all its data and resources to Azure. The company\’s migration plan states that only Platform as a Service (PaaS) solutions must be used in Azure You need to deploy an Azure environment that meets the company\’s migration plan
What should you create?

A. an Azure App Service and Azure SQL databases
B. Azure storage accounts and web server in Azure virtual machines
C. Azure virtual machines. Azure SQL databases, and Azure Storage accounts
D. an Azure App Service and Azure virtual machines that have Microsoft SQL Server installed

Correct Answer: B

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Pl-400 exam

Microsoft Power Platform Developer (PL-400) Practice Exam New Available

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Use the PL-400 practice exam to identify your knowledge gaps and consolidate the concepts you already know:

QUESTION 1 #

You are researching integrations with several external systems.
Each integration has different requirements.

You need to determine which data sources to use to meet each requirement.
What should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate data sources to the correct requirements. Each data source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Box 1: Virtual entity
Initially, defining a virtual entity is the same as defining a custom entity: you specify the entity, attributes, and relationships for the new virtual entity type.
You can use GUIDs as primary keys in the external data source.

Box 2: Virtual entity
Virtual entities enable the integration of data residing in external systems by seamlessly representing that data as entities in Microsoft Dataverse (Common Data Service), without replication of data and often without custom coding.
Virtual entities support to create, update and deletion of data in the external system.

Box 3: Custom connector
A custom connector is a wrapper around a REST API (Logic Apps also supports SOAP APIs) that allows Logic Apps,
Power Automate, or Power Apps to communicate with that REST or SOAP API.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/developer/common-data-service/virtual-entities/get-started-ve

QUESTION 2 #

A company has a model-driven app that captures applications from prospective students.
You are asked to create a new re-usable custom component using the Power Apps component framework (PCF).

The custom component must allow entry of date of birth and validate that the applicant is not a minor.

You create the class AuditDatePicker in the TypeScript file Index.ts and the style sheet DatePicker.css.
You need to define the component to be available only for relevant fields and its properties when used in a form.

How should you complete the manifest? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Box 1: AuditDatePicker
Constructor: Constructor of the code component.

Box 2:DateandTime.DateOnly Box 3: bound usage: Has two properties, bound and input. Bound properties are bound only to the value of the field. Input properties are either bound to a field or allow a static value.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/developer/component-framework/manifest-schemareference/manifest https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/developer/component-framework/implementing-controlsusing-typescript

QUESTION 3 #

You are creating an integration that uses an Azure function to create records in the Common Data Service when leads are submitted from your company website.

You create and configure a Common Data Service application user.
You do not have administrator access to the Common Data Service environment you are using for access to Azure Active Directory.

Company policy dictates that service accounts must be used for integrations, and integrations must not be granted privileges beyond what is needed.

You need to recommend actions that an administrator should perform to configure access for the Azure Function.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct selection presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Create an application registration in Azure Active Directory.
B. Assign the system administrator security role to the application user.
C. Assign the Power Platform administrator role to the application user in Azure Active Directory.
D. Create a new security role with the minimum required permissions and assign it to the application user.
E. Grant the application delegated permissions to the Dynamics CRM API in Azure Active Directory.
F. Deploy Azure B2B guest permissions to the application user.

Correct Answer: ADE

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/developer/common-data-service/walkthrough-register-appazure-active-directory

QUESTION 4 #

An organization implements Dynamics 365 Sales.
You need to trigger a business rule when the main form in saved.
What should you do?

A. Write a business rule to trigger a change of modified field.
B. Set the scope of the business rule to one specific form where the business rule triggers.
C. Set the scope of the business rule to All Forms.
D. Set the scope of the business rule to Entity.

Correct Answer: D

Set the scope of the business rule to “Entity” instead of “All Form”. This will trigger it on the server-side.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/dynamicscrm-2016/developersguide/dn481574(v=crm.8)

QUESTION 5 #

A company uses SharePoint for its intranet and other functions. The company has also implemented model-driven apps.

SharePoint users must be able to create contact records in the Common Data Service (CDS), without having to navigate to the model-driven apps.

You need to create a link in SharePoint to open the CDS contact from displaying data from SharePoint.

How should you complete the URL? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: main.aspx
Example, to open the Active Contacts view.
https://myorg.crm.dynamics.com/main.aspx?etn=contactandpagetype=entitylistandviewid={00000000-0000-0000-00AA-
000010001004}

Box 2: etn
In: The logical name of the entity. Important: Do not use the etc (entity type code) parameter that contains an integer code for the entity. This integer code varies for custom entities in different organizations.

Box 3: Extras
Extras: Optional for forms. This parameter contains encoded parameters within this parameter. When you open a new form by using the URL address, you can include arguments in the extras parameter to set field values

Note: You must encode the parameters passed in the extras parameter. To encode the parameters, use encodeURIComponent. To use special characters like “=” or “and” in the parameter values, you must double encode (e.g. to set name to
A=BandC, it would be extraqs=name%3DA%253DB%2526C).

Box 4: entitylist
Page type: The type of page. There are two possible values:
-entity record
Displays an entity record form.
-entity list
Displays an entity view.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/developer/model-driven-apps/open-forms-views-dialogs-reportsurl
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/developer/model-driven-apps/set-field-values-using-parameters-passedform

QUESTION 6 #

A company is creating a new system based on the Common Data Service (CDS).
You need to select the CDS features that meet the company\’s requirements.
Which features should you select? To answer, drag the appropriate features to the correct requirements.

Each feature may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Box 1: Referential
Active/ Cascade Active one-to-many entity relationship: Perform the action on all active referencing entity records associated with the referenced entity record.

Box 2: Cascade User Owner
Cascade User Owned: Perform the action on all referencing entity records owned by the same user as the referenced entity record.

Box 3: Referential Restrict Delete
Restrict: Prevent the Referenced entity record from being deleted when referencing entities exist.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/developer/common-data-service/configure-entity-relationship-cascadingbehavior

QUESTION 7 #

You are troubleshooting Power Apps solutions.
You need to determine the cause for the identified issues.
What is the root cause for each issue? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8 #

You are creating a model-driven app.
Users need to see only the entities in the app navigation that are relevant to their role and their method of accessing the app.

You need to restrict entities on the sub-areas in the SiteMap.
Which properties should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate properties to the correct requirements.

Each property may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Box 1: Privileges
Privileges: This defines whether a subarea is displayed based on privileges available in any security roles that are assigned to the user.

Box 2: SKU
SKUs: Select the versions of Dynamics 365 that display this subarea.

Box 3: Client
Client: Select the type of client that displays this subarea.

Incorrect Answers:
Offline Availability: Select this check box to make this subarea available to users when they are offline in Dynamics 365 for Outlook.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/model-driven-apps/create-site-map-app

QUESTION 9 #

A company needs to illustrate the relationships of the entities in Dynamics 365 Sales.
You need to select the appropriate tool to show this graphic.
Which tool should you select?

A. Metadata diagram
B. Sales Insights
C. Power Automate
D. Security model

Correct Answer: A

Visual representation of metadata can be useful, especially when you are trying to describe the relationship between entities in the system. You can use the Metadata Diagram sample code provided for Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement (on-premises) to generate the entity-relationship diagrams.

You can create a diagram that shows a relationship for just one entity, or a complex diagram that includes dozens of related entities, including custom and system entities.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customerengagement/on-premises/developer/use-metadatagenerate-entity-diagrams

QUESTION 10 #

A company has a development environment and a production environment. The production environment has several third-party managed and unmanaged solutions that made changes to the Contact main form.

You create a new solution in the development environment. You add the Contact entity and the Contact main form to the solution. You create a custom field on the Contact entity.
What happens when you perform these actions and import the solution into the production environment?

To answer,
select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Box 1: The field is appended to the end of the existing section.
When you add new elements to a form that is to be merged, we recommend that you include your new elements within new container elements (tabs or sections). Additions to any container will be appended to the end of the container. For example, fields added to a section will be positioned at the end of the section.

Box 2: The field is added in a new section.

Box 3: The field is inserted in the middle of the existing section

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/dynamicscrm-2016/developers-guide/gg309329(v=crm.8)

QUESTION 11 #

HOTSPOT
You work for a multinational company that has an Azure and Common Data Service environment in the United States (UTC-7) and Japan (UTC+9).
You create Azure Functions for each location to update key data.

You need to configure the functions to run at 4:00 AM on weekdays at each location.
Which schedule formats should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: 0 0 4 * * 1-5
Azure Functions uses the NCronTab library to interpret NCRONTAB expressions.
An NCRONTAB expression is similar to a CRON expression except that it includes an additional sixth field at the beginning to use for time precision in seconds:

{second} {minute} {hour} {day} {month} {day-of-week}
NCRONTAB time zones
The numbers in a CRON expression refer to a time and date, not a time span. For example, a 5 in the hour field refers
to 5:00 AM, not every 5 hours.
The default time zone used with the CRON expressions is Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).

To have your CRON expression based on another time zone, create an app setting for your function app named
WEBSITE_TIME_ZONE.
1-5 is weekdays
Box 2: 0 0 4 * * 1-5

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-bindings-timer?

QUESTION 12 #

You need to handle errors in UpdateRecord.js. Which code segment should you add at line UR06?

A. catch(error) { alert(“Caught error: ” + error.message);}
B. Exception exception = Server.GetLastError() ; if(exception != null)}
C. catch(exception e){ console.writeline(e)}
D. function (error){ console.log(error.message)}

Correct Answer: A

The catch statement lets you handle the error. Syntax: catch(err) { Block of code to handle errors }
Reference: https://www.w3schools.com/js/js_errors.asp

QUESTION 13 #

DRAG-DROP
You are creating a business process flow for an organization\\’s Request for Quote process.

You need to ensure that the business process flow meets the company\\’s requirements.
Which components should you use?

To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct requirements. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes to scroll to view content. Select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Box 1: Step
Each step represents a field where data can be entered.
Stages tell you where you are in the process, while steps are action items that lead to the desired outcome.

Box 2: Branching condition
You can enhance a business process flow with branching. If you have the create permissions on business process flows, you’ll be able to create business process flow with multiple branches by using the If-Else logic.

Box 3: Stage
Each stage contains a group of steps.
Incorrect Answers:
You can use custom controls to add rich visualizations (such as sliders, radial knobs, LinkedIn control, and more) to business process flow steps and deliver engaging experiences to those who use your business process.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/business-process-flows-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/enhance-business-process-flows-branching

QUESTION 14 #

You need to determine the primary cause of the issue reported by interns when they use the app. What is the primary cause?

A. Interns have the System Customizer security role but need the Environment Maker security role.
B. Interns have the Common Data Service User security role but need the Environment Maker security role.
C. Interns have the Environment Maker security role but need the Common Data Service User security role.
D. Interns have the Environment Maker security role but need the System Customizer security role.
E. Interns have the Environment Maker security role but need the Delegate security role.

Correct Answer: D

Scenario: Interns can create apps but cannot interact with their own data.
Environment Maker role: Can create new resources associated with an environment, including apps, connections, custom APIs, gateways, and flows using Microsoft Power Automate. However, this role doesn\’t have any privileges to access
data within an environment.

System Customizer role: full permission to customize the environment. However, users with this role can only view records for environment entities that they create.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/database-security

QUESTION 15 #

You have a Common Data Service entity and a model-driven app. The model-driven app integrates with an external system.

You plan to run business logic each time the model-driven app creates a record. Running business logic must not negatively affect model-driven app users.

You need to implement the business logic.
What should you use?

A. Synchronous plug-in registered in the PreOperation stage
B. Synchronous workflow
C. Asynchronous plug-in registered in the PostOperation stage

Correct Answer: C

The asynchronous service executes long-running operations independent of the main Microsoft Dataverse core operation.

This results in improved overall system performance and improved scalability.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/developer/common-data-service/asynchronous-service

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Cisco

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QUESTION 1

A network engineer needs to configure system logging on the MDS switch. The messages must be displayed with the severity level of “warning” and above.

For security reasons, the users must be logged out of the console after 5 minutes of inactivity. Which configuration must be applied to meet these requirements?

A. MDS-A(config)# logging console 5 MDS-A(config-console)# exec-timeout 300

B. MDS-A(config)# line console MDS-A(config-console)# speed 38400 MDS-A(config-console)# exec-timeout 5 MDSA(config)# logging console 4

C. MDS-A(config)# logging line 4 MDS-A(config-console)# session-limit 300

D. MDS-A(config)# console MDS-A(config-console)# speed 38400 MDS-A(config-console)# session-limit 5 MDSA(config)# logging console 5

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/6_2/configuration/guides/fundamentals/b_Cisco_MDS_9000_Series_NX-OS_Fundamentals_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_MDS_9000_Series_NXOS_Fu
ndamentals_Configuration_Guide_Release_6_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION 2

In an FCoE environment, for which two sets of data must an interface that implements the PAUSE mechanism always provision sufficient ingress buffer? (Choose two)

A. frames that were sent with high credit

B. frames that were processed and transmitted by the transmitter before the PAUSE frame left the sender

C. frames that were sent on the link but not yet received.

D. frames that were sent on the link and received.

E. frames that were processed and transmitted by the transmitter after the PAUSE frame left the sender.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3

A POAP-enabled Cisco Nexus switch will not enter POAP mode. Which two conditions should be verified? (Choose two.)

A. Bootflash must contain a special directory named POAP with poap.py file.

B. The switch is in the bootup process.

C. No startup configuration is available.

D. The license file is missing on the switch.

E. No Cisco NX-OS image is present on the bootflash.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4

What happens to the default host firmware policy after a Cisco UCS Manager upgrade?

A. It is updated to contain the firmware entries of all the components
B. It is replaced by a new default policy without any firmware entries.
C. It is assigned to all the service profiles that include a host firmware policy.
D. It is set to match the host firmware policy.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of backup is required to restore a Cisco UCS configuration?

A. system configuration
B. all configuration
C. logical configuration
D. full state

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/1-0- 2/
b_CLI_Config_Guide_1-0-2/CLI_Config_Guide_1-0-2_chapter29.pdf

QUESTION 6

An engineer configures a role for a new user in Cisco UCS Manager The role should allow the user to configure vHBAs, vNICs, and server port types. Which role should be assigned to allow the engineer to complete this task?

A. network administrator
B. operations
C. server-compute
D. AAA administrator

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1- 4/
UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_4_chapter9.html

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucsm_privileges/3-1/UCSM- Privileges- 3_1.pdf

QUESTION 7

A network architect must redesign a data center network based on OSPFv2. The network must perform fast reconvergence between directly connected switches.

Which two actions must be taken to meet the requirements?
(Choose two.)

A. Set low OSPF hello and DEAD timers.
B. Configure all links on AREA 0.
C. Enable BFD for failure detection.
D. Use OSPF point-to-point links only.
E. Implement a virtual link between the switches.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8

An engineer configures a storage environment for a customer with high-security standards. The secure environment is configured in van 50. The customer wants to maintain a configuration and active databases and prevent unauthorized switches from joining the fabric.

Additionally, the switches must prevent rogue devices from connecting to their ports by automatically learning the WWPNs of the ports connected to them for the first time. Which two configuration sets must be used to meet these requirements? (Chose two.)

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9

A connect network engineer connects the CAN interface of a server to a switch. The switch must bring down all the VLANs on the interface that are not enabled for FCoE, but the Vlans that are enabled for FCoE should continue to carry SAN traffic without interruption.

Which configuration should be applied to the switch to achieve this objective?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

An engineer must configure multiple EPGs on a single access port in a large Cisco ACI fabric without using VMM integration. The relevant access policies and tenant policies have been created. A single AAEP is used to configure the access port in the fabric.

Which two additional steps must be taken to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)


A. A contract must be defined between the EPGs
B. The EPGs must be linked to the correct physical domain
C. The EPGs must link directly to the corresponding AAEP
D. The corresponding bridge domains must be configured in legacy mode
E. The EPGs must be configured as static ports

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11

What is the benefit of using the Cisco UCS Lightweight upgrade feature?

A. Security update are scheduled with the next reboot of the fabric interconnects.
B. The firmware version of a component is updated only when it has been modified
C. All servers are rebooted to push the latest updates.
D. A soft reboot is available for the fabric interconnects.

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-central/GUI-User-Guides/Administration/2-0/b_CiscoUCSCentral_AdministrationGuide-2-0/
b_CiscoUCSCentral_AdministrationGuide-2-0_chapter_01000.pdf

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements describe the routing table of the leaf switch? (Choose two.)

A. The next-hop 10.0.8.65 for route 10.20.1.0724 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
B. The next-hop 10.0.1.14 for route 172.16.99.0/24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
C. The next-hop 10.1.168.95 for route 172.16.100 0/24 is the TEP address of a border leaf in ACI.
D. 172.16.100.0/24 is a BD subnet in ACI.
E. 10.20.1.0/24 is a BD subnet in ACI.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit.

What is configured as a result of running these commands?

A. reverse lookup for outbound packets
B. strict unicast RPF
C. loose unicast RPF
D. IP Source Guard

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources.
You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script.
Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs macOS and has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

……

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Latest Microsoft Fundamentals AZ-900 Practice Test Questions For Free

QUESTION 1
You plan to migrate a web application to Azure. The web application is accessed by external users.
You need to recommend a cloud deployment solution to minimize the amount of administrative effort used to manage
the web application.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Software as a Service (SaaS)
B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
D. Database as a Service (DaaS)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-900 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

az-900 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

az-900 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

az-900 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
Your company has 10 offices. You plan to generate several billing reports from the Azure portal. Each report will contain
the Azure resource utilization of each office. Which Azure Resource Manager feature should you use before you
generate the reports?
A. tags
B. templates
C. locks
D. policies
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure environment that contains 10 virtual networks and 100 virtual machines.
You need to limit the amount of inbound traffic to all the Azure virtual networks.
What should you create?
A. one network security group (NSG)
B. 10 virtual network gateways
C. 10 Azure ExpressRoute circuits
D. one Azure firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
When planning to migrate a public website to Azure, you must plan to pay monthly usage costs.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Deploy a VPN
C. pay to transfer all the website data to Azure
D. reduce the number of connections to the website
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines.
You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP.
Solution: You modify an Azure firewall.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 is in the East US Azure region.
Which Azure service should you use from the Azure portal to view service failure notifications that can affect the
availability of VM1?
A. Azure Service Fabric
B. Azure Monitor
C. Azure virtual machines
D. Azure Advisor
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You plan to deploy several Azure virtual machines.
You need to ensure that the services running on the virtual machines are available if a single data center fails.
Solution: You deploy the virtual machines to two or more scale sets.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/availability

QUESTION 10
Your company plans to migrate to Azure. The company has several departments. All the Azure resources used by each
department will be managed by a department administrator.
You need to recommend an Azure deployment that provides the ability to segment Azure for the departments. The
solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. multiple subscriptions
B. multiple Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) directories
C. multiple regions
D. multiple resource groups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You plan to implement an Azure database solution.
You need to implement a database solution that meets the following requirements:
Can add data concurrently from multiple regions
Can store JSON documents
Which database service should you deploy? To answer, select the appropriate service in the answer area.
Hot Area:

az-900 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

az-900 exam questions-q11-2

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-integrate-store-unstructured-datacosmosdb?tabs=csharp

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple
subscriptions.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Management groups
C. Azure policies
D. Azure App Service plans
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Your company has 10 departments.
The company plans to implement an Azure environment.
You need to ensure that each department can use a different payment option for the Azure services it consumes.
What should you create for each department?
A. a reservation
B. a subscription
C. a resource group
D. a container instance
Correct Answer: B

Microsoft AZ-900 dumps Practice Test Questions Answers

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Citrix

Citrix 1Y0-241 Dumps Updated | Successfully Obtained Dream Certification

Information about the Citrix 1Y0-241 exam

Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA-AppDS
Exam Code: 1Y0-241
Exam Name: Deploy and Manage Citrix ADC 13 with Traffic Management
Updated: Jun 13, 2021
Q&As: 64

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