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Microsoft SQL Server 2012

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The Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012 (070-461 SQL Server) exam tests a network security engineer on SQL Server database administrators, system engineers, and developers with two or more years of experience, who are seeking to validate their skills and knowledge in writing queries. Through the feedback of many examinees who have used Pass4itsure’s training program to pass some IT certification exams, it proves that using Pass4itsure’s products to pass IT certification exams is very easy. This exam consists of 164 questions and covers Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012 course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the Microsoft MCP, MCSA, MCSE certifications.The 070-461 dumps exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

Exam 070-461 Microsoft SQL Server
Published: June 11, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-461 Dumps Exam Q&As(34-49)

Question No : 34
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461 dumps
Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables. Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
070-461 exam Answer: C

Question No : 35
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that includes a table named Products. The Products table has columns named Productld, ProductName, and CreatedDateTime. The table contains a unique constraint on the combination of ProductName and CreatedDateTime. You need to modify the Products table to meet the following requirements: Remove all duplicates of the Products table based on the ProductName column. Retain only the newest Products row. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
B. ProductName = cte.ProductName
AND p.CreatedDateTime > cte.CreatedDateTime
C. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
cte.ProductName = p.ProductName
AND cte.CreatedDateTime > p.CreatedDateTime
D. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MIN(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
E. ProductName = cte.ProductName
F. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
G. ProductName = cte.ProductName
Answer: B

Question No : 36
You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2, and Database3. You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. You plan to write and deploy a
stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must execute other stored procedures in the other databases. You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2 can execute the stored procedure. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. USE Database2
B. EXECUTE AS OWNER
C. USE Database1
D. EXECUTE AS CALLER
070-461 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 37
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the
Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the Sales schema. You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What
should you do?
A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the users to the db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on
each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Answer: A

Question No : 38
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a Product table created by using the following definition:
070-461 dumps
You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the Product table.
What should you do?
A. Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B. Implement Unicode Compression.
C. Implement row-level compression.
D. Implement page-level compression.
070-461 pdf Answer: D

Question No : 39
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
070-461 dumps
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c
ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID
WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE()) B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows: SELECT c.CustomerName FROM Sales.Customer c WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT s.OrderDate FROM Sales.SalesOrder WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s
ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID
WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE()) D. Rewrite the report query as follows: SELECT c.CustomerName FROM Sales.Customer c WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID, 90)) Rewrite the UDF as follows: CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT OrderDate FROM Sales.SalesOrder WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, [email protected], GETDATE())
Answer: A

Question No : 40 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
070-461 vce Answer: D

Question No : 41 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling.
A. To identify hot spots and overcooling.
B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

Question No : 42. Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
070-461 exam Answer: C

Question No : 43 Which of the following is a stakeholder in a Green IT programme?
a.Government organisations.
b.Suppliers.
c.Company shareholders.
d.Employees. e.Religious organisations.
A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

Question No : 44 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an organisation? Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
070-461 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 45 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme?
a.Alienation of key staff.
b.Additional unplanned costs.
c.Perceived lack of benefits.
d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

Question No : 46 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
070-461 pdf Answer: B

Question No : 47 Which of the following actions should an organisation take to help realise the marketing value of green
IT?
a.Provide public disclosures of their environmental impact.
b.Redefine their business strategy to
include green initiatives.
c.Ensure all advertising focuses on its green message.
d.Provide a green
discount across all of its product range.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.
Answer: D

Question No : 48 Which of the following is a benefit of adopting green IT within an organisation?
A. Creating a culture of team-based working.
B. Promoting a culture of maximum productivity.
C. Establishing a culture of total innovation.
D. Developing a culture of social responsibility.
070-461 vce Answer: D

Question No : 49 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green IT programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C
070-461 dumps

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for SQL Server database administrators, system engineers, and developers with two or more years of experience, who are seeking to validate their skills and knowledge in writing queries.

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The 070-461 (SQL Server) Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012 exam is a 164 question assessment that is aUnless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables.ssociated with the MCP, MCSA, MCSE certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of SQL Server database administrators, system engineers, and developers with two or more years of experience, who are seeking to validate their skills and knowledge in writing queries. Recently, Pass4itsure has developed the newest training solutions about the popular Microsoft certification 070-461 guaranteed Success exam, including some pertinent simulation tests that will help you consolidate related knowledge and let you be well ready for Microsoft certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-461.html dumps exam.A candidate is tested on knowledge of Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012 course maintenance.
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Microsoft Server Infrastructure

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Exam Code: 70-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 245

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4. You have configured multiple OSPF areas on your network. How do the different OSPF areas communicate with each other?
A.The Designated Router (DR) uses multicast routing to broadcast advertisements to the other area DRs
B.The Designated Router (DR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
C.The Area Border Router (ABR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas

D.The Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and communicates with the other areas
070-413 exam 
Answer: C
5. An IP address must be configured on a switch before it can be managed using Telnet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
6. What is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command snmp-agent target-host trap address udp-domain 129.102.149.23 udp-port 5000 params securityname 3comprivate?
A.Configures the switch with a default community string name of 3comprivate
B.Enables the SNMP trap functions on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
C.Configures the switch SNMP agent to send traps to the network management station at IP address
129.102.149.23
D.Enables the SNMP trap functions and sets the default community string name of 3compublic on a
switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
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Answer: C
7. Which three are Switch 5500 configuration requirements when creating an eXpandable Resilient
(XRN) Fabric? (Choose three.)
A.All units in the stack must have the same sysname
B.All units in the stack must be running the same software version
C.A mixture of switch models can be used to create a single XRN Fabric
D.Switch 5500-SI/EI up/down ports must be enabled for fabric mode
E.A switch must be initialized after it has been added to an existing XRN Fabric
Answer: ABD
8. What is the reason to connect the up port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?

A.Reliability – creates a resilient topology
B.Security – prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C.Performance – creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D.Management – enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI
070-413 pdf 
Answer: A
9. How does the network administrator configure the up/down Switch 5500-EI/SI ports to operate in fabric mode?
A.By default, the up/down ports are enabled for fabric mode
B.Execute the command xrn-fabric authentication-mode simple
C.Execute the command resilient-arp enable x/x/x where x/x/x identifies the unit and port number
D.Execute the command fabric-port gigabit x/x/x enable where x/x/x identifies the unit and port number
Answer: D
10. Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A.Switch 5500-EI
B.Switch 5500-SI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
070-413 vce 
Answer: B
11. Which security standard is defined by IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A.Encryption standard for network authorization
B.Port-based Network Access Control protocol standard
C.Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) standard for network authorization
D.Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) standard for network access
Answer: B
12. Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A.An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication
 before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B.A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the
authenticator
C.A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the authentication server
070-413 exam 
Answer: B
13.Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
Answer: A,B,D
14.Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE
B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE
C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE
D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE
E. No parameters settings are required
F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID
070-413 dumps Answer: B
15.What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
six.)
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G
16.Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page? (Choose two.)
A. Date Format
B. Default Repository
C. Activate Delegation
D. Activate Auto-Approval
E. Default Catalog Format

F. Activate Out-Of-Office Notification
070-413 pdf Answer: A,C
17.Which three are supported command types for the MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
three.)
A. Add B.
Copy C.
Query D.
Modify
E. Compare
Answer: A,C,D
18.Which of the following statements is incorrect when using a database table as a CIM data source?
A. Any new records added to the table are immediately available to CIM
B. The table or view must reside in the same database instance that CIM is using
C. If the data source contains any attributes of typedate, all such attributes must have the same date format
D. It is not possible to provide CIM specific column names for the table when defining the data source
properties
070-413 vce Answer: B
19.Which two can an input map use to assign an attribute a value? (Choose two.)
A. hard-coded value
B. a concatenation of two or moredatasource columns
C. an expression based on the value of a child record attribute
D. a user-supplied value provided during execution of the import event
Answer: A,B
20.Which three are valid topic names with TIBCO CIM? (Choose three.)
A. T_ECM_CORE_ADMIN
B. T_ECM_CORE_RULE_CACHE
C. T_ECM_CORE_OBJECT_CACHE
D. T_ECM_CORE_REPOSITORY_CACHE
070-413 exam Answer: A,B,C

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Microsoft SQL Server 2012

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Question No: 5 – (Topic 1)  A SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package on a computer is failing periodically in production. The package was created less than one year ago and was deployed to the SSIS catalog. Sometimes the package is started on a SQL Agent schedule; sometimes the package is
started manually by an SSIS developer by using the Object Explorer in SQL Server Management Studio. You need to identify the authenticated user responsible for starting the package each time it failed in the past.
Where can you find this information?
A. the SQL Server Log
B. the SSISDB.. view
C. the SSISDB.. view
D. the SQL Agent Job History
E. the SQL Agent Error Log
070-463 exam Answer: B
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  You maintain a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package was developed by using SQL Server 2008 Business Intelligence Development Studio (BIDS). The package includes custom scripts that must be upgraded. You need to upgrade the package to SQL Server 2012.
Which tool should you use?
A. SSIS Upgrade Wizard in SQL Server 2008 BIDS
B. SSIS Upgrade Wizard in SQL Server Data Tools
C. SQL Server DTExecUI utility (dtexecui.exe)
D. SQL Server dtexec utility (dtexec.exe)
Answer: B
Question No : 7 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains a task with a sensitive property. You need to create a project parameter and configure it so that its value is encrypted when it is deployed to the SSIS catalog. Which three steps should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate 070-463 dumps actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)070-463 dumps
Question No : 8 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  A new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project is deployed to the SSIS catalog. To troubleshoot some data issues, you must output the data streaming through several data flows into text files for further analysis. You have the list of data flow package paths and identification strings of the various task components that must be analyzed. You need to create these output files with the least amount of administrative and development effort.
Which three stored procedures should you execute in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
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Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  You are reviewing the design of an existing fact table named factSales, which is loaded from a SQL Azure database by a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package each day. The fact table has approximately 1 billion rows and is dimensioned by product, sales date, and sales time of day.
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The database administrator is concerned about the growth of the database. Users report poor reporting performance against this database. Reporting requirements have recently changed and the only remaining report that uses this fact table reports sales by product name, sale month, and sale year. No other reports will be created against this table.
You need to reduce the report processing time and minimize the growth of the database.
What should you do?
A. Partition the table by product type.
B. Create a view over the fact table to aggregate sales by month.
C. Change the granularity of the fact table to month.
D. Create an indexed view over the fact table to aggregate sales by month.
070-463 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The following SAS program is submitted:
Data sasuser.history;
Set sasuser.history(keep=state x y
Rename = (state=ST));
Total=sum(x,y);
Run;
The SAS data set SASUSER.HISTORY has an index on the variable STATE.
Which describes the result of submitting the SAS program?
A. The index on STATE is deleted and an index on ST is created
B. The index on STATE is recreated as an index on ST
C. The index on STATE is deleted
D. The index on STATE is updated as an index on ST
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro one(input);
%two;
%put the value is &date;
%mend;
%macro two;
data _null_;
call symput(‘date’,’12SEP2008′);
run;
%mend;
%let date=31DEC2006;
%one(&date)
What is the result when the %PUT statement executes?
A. A macro variable DATE with the value 12SEP2008 is retrieved from the local symbol table for the ONE
macro
B. A macro variable DATE with the value 12SEP2008 is retrieved from the local symbol table for
theTWOmacro
C. A macro variable DATE with the value 12SEP2008 is retrieved from the global symbol table
D. A macro variable DATE with the value 31DEC2006 is retrieved from the global symbol table
070-463 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Which SET statements option names a variable that contains the number of the observation to read during
the current iteration of the DATA step?
A. OBS=pointobs
B. POINT=pointobs

C. KEY=pointobs
D. NOBS=pointobs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 13
When reading a SAS data file, what does the NOBS=option on the SET statement represent?
A. A variable that represents the total number of observation in the output data set(s)
B. A variable that represents a flag indicating the end of the file
C. A variable that represents the total number of observations in the input data set(s)
D. A variable that represents the current observation number
070-463 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
The following SAS program is submitted:
%micro test(var);
%let jobs=BLACKSMITH WORDSMITH SWORDSMITH;
%let type=%index(&jobs,&var);
%put type = &type;
%mend;
%test(SMITH)
What is the value of the macro variable TYPE when the %PUT statement executes?
A. 0
B. Null
C. 6
D. 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro check(num=4);
%let result=%eval(&nm gt 5);
%put result is &result;
%mend;
%check (num=10)
What is written to the SAS log?
A. result is true
B. result is 10 gt 5
C. result is 1
D. result is 0

070-463 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 16
The following SAS program is submitted:
data temp;
length 1 b 3 x;
in file ‘file reference’;
input a b x;
run;
What is the result?
A. The data set TEMP is not created because variables A and B have invalid lengths
B. The data set TEMP is created, but variable X is not created
C. The data set TEMP is not created because variable A has an invalid length
D. The data set TEMP is created and variable X has a length of 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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Microsoft SharePoint Applications

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Latest updates Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A network uses on pair of Layer 3 switches for core and distribution purposes. Which design is this network using?
A. collapsed core
B. collapsed distribution
C. collapsed Layer 3 core
D. collapsed Layer 2-3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zone set named zone set2, but the server is still unable
to access the shared storage.
Which command will resolve this issue?
A. zone copy active-zoneset ful-zoneset
B. zoneset activate zoneset 2
C. zone default-zone permit vsan 2
D. copy running onfig startup-config
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: AE
It defines the electrical and physical specifications of the data connection. It defines the relationship between a device
and a physical transmission medium (e.g. a copper or fiber optical cable). This includes the layout of pins, voltages, line impedance, cable specifications, signal timing, hubs, repeaters, network adapters, host bus adapters (HBA used in
storage area networks) and more.” http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OSI_model

QUESTION 4
If a Nexus switch receives a frame and no MAC table entry is found for the destination, what will take place?
A. The frame will be dropped.
B. The frame will be flooded.
C. The sender will be notified.
D. The destination address will be learned.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which product is a Call Control Server that supports both voice and video communication?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Content Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?
A. TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
B. TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
C. TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
D. TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
How many video endpoints can call into a CMR Cloud meeting?
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which protocol data unit is associated with the link layer of the TCP/IP model?
A. frame
B. packet
C. segment
D. datagram
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about the crocc connections between 5k\\’s and 7k\\’s in the network?
A. VLAN 100 is the native VLAN
B. 56 extended VALN are configured in the network
C. VLANs 125-150 are allowed on the cross connections between the 7k\\’s and 5k\\’s
D. VLANs 100-124 are err-disabled on the cross connections between the 7k\\’s and 5k\\’s
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Pass4itsure Cisco 200-150 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. NP uplink ports connected to the core NPIV switch do not come online and are stuck in an initializing state. Which options is a cause for this behavior?
A. The upstream NP Ports and the downstream server F Ports on the NPV edge switch may not be in the same VSA.
B. The core switch has not been enabled for NPIV.
C. The upstream VSAN ports and the server ports are in full duplex mode.
D. Related VSAN identifier is not allowed on Virtual Port Channels toward the edge switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which management solution works with endpoints registered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?
A. TMS
B. Time
C. CMA
D. CMR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which advantage does the bidirectional Cisco QSFP 40-GBPs BiDi transceiver provide?
A. It supports a breakout connection with a 40-gigabit QSFP port on one end that connections to four 10-gigabit SDFP +
ports on the other end.
B. it supports link lengths up to 40 km over single-mode fiber with duplex line card connectors.
C. It supports dedicated fabric-extender transceiver modules that connect to fabric links ( that I, links between a fabric
extender and a parent switch).
D. It enables the reuses of the existing 10-gigabit duplex MMF infrastructure for migration to 40 gigabit Ethernet
connectivity.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which option includes the two devices that can be connected when a Cisco Fabric Extender Transceiver is used?
A. Server to Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch
B. Server to Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender to Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch
D. Server to Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are supporting an application that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework to query and access data.
The latest version of a tool will add new templates and wizards that will enhance developer productivity.
You need to update the tool.
Which Visual Studio 2012 menu item should you choose? (To answer, select the appropriate menu item in the answer
area.)
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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q1

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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
You are developing an ASP.NET Web API action method.
The action method must return the following JSON in the message body.
{” Name “:” Fabrikam”, “Vendor Id”: 9823, “Items”: }
You need to return an anonymous object that is serialized to JSON.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer
area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q2

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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
You are developing an Internet-based ASP.NET Web API application that manages pet data.
You install an SSL certificate on the web server to encrypt calls to the API. You create a class named PetAuthorization,
which inherits from a type named AuthorizeAttribute, and implements the OnAuthorization() method.
You need to implement basic authentication for the API.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate words to the correct targets in the answer area.
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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q3

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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
You have two methods named F1 and F2.
F2 takes a sting as a parameter.
You need to create a method named F3. F3 must retrieve a string value asynchronously.
The string must call F2. During the asynchronous load of the string, F1 must run.
Which five code blocks should you use? Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the
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NOTE: You will not need all of the code blocks.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q4

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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
You are developing a WCF service in Visual Studio 2013 that integrates with the Microsoft Azure service bus relay.
The Azure service bus namespace is named RestaurantServiceBus
You need to obtain the issuer name and secret.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.)
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q5

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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
You are developing a library to support multiple ASP.NET MVC web applications on a shared server. The library
provides implementations of security algorithms.
If a problem with any of the security algorithms is discovered, a new version of the library must be created and deployed. Application downtime during the update must be minimized.
You need to ensure that the new version of the library will be used by all applications as soon as possible.
What should you do?
A. Build the web applications and include the security assembly as an embedded resource. When an update is needed,
copy the new assembly to the bin directory for the application.
B. Sign all assemblies in each application with the same key used to sign the security assembly. When an update is
needed, create a new key pair and re-sign all assemblies.
C. Build the security assembly as a netmodule in a shared location. Use the assembly linker to merge the netmodule
into the assemblies for the application. When an update is needed, update the netmodule in the shared location.
D. Install the security assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC). When an update is needed, update the assembly
in the GAC.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Some airlines do not specify the timezone of the arrival time. If the timezone is not specified, then it should be
interpreted per the business requirements.
You need to implement the LoadFlights() and Parse() methods of the BlueYonderLoader class.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location in the answer area. Each
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to
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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q7

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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one
correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy an ASP.NET Core web application to Azure App Services. You are using Azure Event Hubs to collect the
telemetry data for the application.
You need to configure Event Hubs to automatically deliver the telemetry data stream to a persistent data store.
Solution: Configure Event Hubs Capture to deliver data to Azure Data Lake Store.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use Azure Blob storage to store the telemetry data.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-capture-overview

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You develop a REST API that uses Node.js. The API will store data in Azure Cosmos DB. You plan to deploy the API to
a new Azure App Services Web App. You create a new Web App by using the Azure portal.
The API must be deployed by using SFTP.
You need to provide the proper deployment credentials to deploy the API.
Solution: Download the. PublishSettings file and enter the username and password located in the file. Does the solution
meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Example:
# Get FTP publishing profile and query for publish URL and credentials creds=($(az webapp deployment list-publishingprofiles –name $webappname –resource- group myResourceGroup \
–query “.” –output tsv)) – -query
“.” –output tsv))
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/scripts/app-service-cli- deploy-ftp

QUESTION 10
You are maintaining a ASP.NET Core web application that uses Entity Framework Core for data access. The application
contains a model class named Student.
You must add a field named FirstName to the class. The field has following requirements:
Use a non-nullable field named FName to store data in a Microsoft SQL Server database.
The data length must be between 2 and 50 characters.
The application user interface must display an error message if the maximum or minimum length requirements are not
met.
You need to implement the FirstName field.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments to use in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q10

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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q10-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/tutorials/first-mvc-app/validation?view=aspnetcore-2.2

QUESTION 11
You are creating an application that retrieves Microsoft SQL Server data from two tables named Product and
ProductModel.
You need to store in two separate lists all the names of the products and the product models for later use by the
application.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q11

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Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database.
You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: REPEATABLE READ Specifies that statements cannot read data that has been modified but not yet
committed by other transactions and that no other transactions can modify data that has been read by the current
transaction until the current transaction completes.

QUESTION 13
You need to perform the initial deployment of the web application. You must ensure that the application meets the
performance requirements. Which file should you modify before you deploy the application?
A. the service definition file (.csdef)
B. the application configuration file (app.config)
C. the packages configuration file (packages.config)
D. the Global.asax file (.asax)
Correct Answer: A
You use cscfg file to define various settings related to your cloud application (in ConfigurationSettings section). Like
app.config file, you get to define other things (e.g.number of instances of your cloud application) in the cscfg file. You
could
change the settings in a cscfg file on the fly using either the portal or Service Management API without having to
repackage and redeploy the application.
Scenario: After the initial deployment, any changes to the business logic of the Web API must cause minimal downtime
to the web application in the production environment.

Microsoft Azure and Web Services FAQs

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QUESTION 1
How can application workload mobility be achieved?
A. By doing nothing, the fabric dynamically detects resource utilization and balances the fabric.
B. Configure a VMM domain and attachable entity profile without provisioning VTEP for mobility.
C. Workload mobility is not supported in ACI.
D. Provision VTEPs to handle live migrations.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two planes are involved in the discovery of hypervisor hosts on the Cisco ACI? (Choose two.)
A. data
B. management
C. control
D. HSRP
E. LLDP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
OpFlex can be used with any tree-based abstract model assuming the tree has what associated with it?
A. API
B. port group
C. URI
D. PR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of the Clos architecture? (Choose two.)
A. improved fabric scalability
B. complicated network design and implementation
C. multiple nonblocking ECMP paths from all leafs
D. limited fabric scalability
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
How many Cisco APIC controllers are required to form a Cisco APIC cluster?
A. three controllers, 3N redundancy
B. two controllers, N+1 redundancy
C. three controllers, N+2 redundancy
D. three controllers, 2N+1 redundancy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
When designing Cisco ACI spine topology, how many spine switches are required?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true regarding APIs? (Choose two.)
A. APIs have full read and write access to the Cisco ACI.
B. APIs provide hardware-based mapping database lookup.
C. APIs provide tenant- and application-aware programmability, automation, and system access.
D. The API only accepts HTTP or HTTPS messages that contain Ruby or XML documents.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which answer accurately describes the fat tree design implemented as part of the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Clos architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to spines. Policies are enforced on leafs and spines.
B. Clos architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to leafs. Policies are enforced on leafs only.
C. Multitier architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to spines. Policies are enforced on spines only.
D. Multitier architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to leafs. Policies are enforced on leafs only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which best describes the Cisco ACI fabric configuration?
A. manual discovery, manual provisioning, 10- and 40-Gb/s links, Clos design
B. autodiscovery, manual provisioning, 10- and 40-Gb/s links, Clos design
C. autodiscovery, zero-touch provisioning, 40-Gb/s links, Clos design
D. manual discovery, zero-touch provisioning, 40-Gb/s links, Clos design
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
In Cisco ACI, what enables inter-End Point Group communications?
A. contracts
B. subcontracts
C. private VLANs
D. community VLANs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI?
A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway.
B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine.
C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant\\’s bridge domain exists.
D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two components set up a domain vPC between two leaf switches in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. vPC peerlink
B. vPC peer keepalive
C. vPC domain
D. vPC protection policy
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
In Cisco ACI, which three statements are true about bridge domains? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge domains can operate in two modes: legacy and normal.
B. Bridge domains can span multiple switches.
C. A bridge domain can contain multiple subnets, but a subnet is contained within a single bridge domain.
D. Subnets can span multiple EPGs; one or more EPGs can be associated with one bridge domain or subnet.
E. Unicast routing is applicable for bridge domains under normal mode.
F. Bridge domain legacy mode allows multiple VLANs per bridge domain.
Correct Answer: BCD

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Exam MB-200: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-mb-200.aspx

Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who have access to the features and functionality of the enterprise licensed product.
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Candidates are primarily responsible for configuring the system to meet client needs, performing design tasks related to implementing new features and functionality, and implementing and testing system changes.

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  • Manage user experience design (20-25%)
  • Manage entities and data (15-20%)
  • Implement security (5-10%)
  • Implement integration (15-20%)
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Microsoft Certifications MB-200 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You use the Data Performance tool. There are 14
items in the All Data Performance Logs view. Some log items detail positive operational impact percentages while
others
detail negative operational percentages.
Users report that the system is less responsive than in the past.
You need to improve system performance.
Solution: Select optimize for log items that have optimizations available and that have a positive operational impact
percentage.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are a Dynamics 365 system administrator.
You create a custom entity named Stores in a development Sandbox instance. You populate the custom entity with 185
store locations.
You need to migrate the custom entity and data to a Production instance.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct tasks. Each action may be used once, more
than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q2

QUESTION 3
You manage Dynamics 365 instances as shown in the exhibit below.pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q3

You configure EMEA as a new Production instance. The EMEA instance must use the same configuration as the North
America instance. The EMEA instance must not include any data from North America.
You need to configure the EMEA instance by using the Dynamics 365 administration center.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q3-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q3-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/copy-instance

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
You must use Microsoft Flow to create an opportunity from a Microsoft Excel workbook.
You need to ensure Flow will trigger on the Opportunity entity.
What should you do?
A. Enable connections.
B. Add the timeline control.
C. Enable business process flow.
D. Enable change tracking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
Users report that a subgrid from the Onsite Goals custom entity takes a very long time to load on the Account records
page.
You need to improve the query load time and optimize the Onsite Goals entity.
Which action should you perform?
A. In an Internet browser, in the browser options, set the option to retain browser history.
B. In the Data Perform view, use the Optimize functions.
C. In System Jobs, resume paused system jobs.
D. In the Dynamics 365 Diagnostic tool, run the diagnostic test.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator.
A user must be able to view system posts and activities in a dashboard.
You need to create the dashboard for the user.
Which components should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q6-1

QUESTION 7
You manage a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service instance.
You must modify the unit price from two decimal places to four decimal places.
You need to ensure the unit price displays with four digits after the decimal.
What should you configure?
A. Currency Precision to use four decimal places.
B. Base Currency to use four decimal places.
C. Currency field type to whole number.
D. Currency Conversion to use four decimal places.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
On a Contact record, a user creates a note that contains the word running.
One week later, the user reports that they cannot find the Contact record associated with the note.
You need to find the note.
Solution: Use Quick Find search on the Contact entity to search for the word run.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
When a customer case is assigned to a new representative, the system must send an email to the customer to alert
them about the change.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. Your organization deploys Dynamics 365 for
Outlook.
The sales team reports the following synchronization issues between Dynamics 365 and Outlook:
Microsoft PowerPoint presentations are missing from meeting invitations that are sent from Dynamics 365.
Outlook task lists are not visible in Dynamics 365.
You need to enable system settings to help address these issues.
Which two settings should you enable? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Exchange folder-level tracking.
B. Synchronize appointment attachments with Outlook or Exchange.
C. Synchronize tasks that assigned in Outlook.
D. Go Offline
Correct Answer: BC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/outlook-addin/admin-guide/configure-synchronization-appointments-contacts-tasks

QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You create an app for the sales team.
Members of the sales team cannot access the app.
You need to ensure that sales team members can access the app.
Where should you configure app permissions?
A. Dynamics administration center
B. Manage Roles
C. Dynamics 365 home
D. Security Roles
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/manage-access-apps-security-roles

QUESTION 12
You import data into Dynamics 365 for Customer Service by using the Import Data wizard. Errors occur when you try to
import the following data lines:pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q12

You need to identify the cause of the errors.
What error types have occurred? To answer, drag the appropriate error types to the correct data. Each error type may
be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
On a Contact record, a user creates a note that contains the word running.
One week later, the user reports that they cannot find the Contact record associated with the note.
You need to find the note.
Solution: Use Categorized Search to search for the word run.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft Business Intelligence

Where to get the latest Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-466 dumps and 70-466 practice test questions and answers | Itcertlab

The latest updates Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-466 dumps, 70-466 pdf free download, 70-466 exam practice test questions to improve your skills.
“Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server” 70-466 Exam. Easy to pass the exam: Pass4itsure.com!

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-466: Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-466.aspx
This exam is intended for business intelligence (BI) developers who focus on creating BI solutions that require implementing multi-dimensional data models, implementing and maintaining OLAP cubes, and creating information displays used in business decision making.

pass4itsure 70-466 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Build an analysis services multidimensional database (35-40%)
  • Manage, maintain, and troubleshoot a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) database (15-20%)
  • Build a tabular data model (15-20%)
  • Build a report with SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) (25-30%)

Latest Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-466 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You need to create the KPI in the AdhocReports project. What should you do?
A. Create a measure by using the SUM() expression. Then use the CREATE KPI CURRENTCUBE
statement to define the KPI and target value.
B. Create a measure by using the SUM() expression and create a KPI based on the measure. Then set
the target value.
C. Create a measure by using the COUNT() expression and create a KPI based on the measure. Then
set the target value.
D. Create a KPI based on the OrderQuantity column and then set the target value.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
You are modifying a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube.
Users of the cube report that the precision for the TransactionCost measure is five digits.
You need to ensure that the TransactionCost measure stores values to two digits of precision.
What should you do?
A. Use the FormatString measure property to format TransactionCost as Currency.
B. Add a named calculation in the data source view that casts the data source column to two digits of precision. Bind the
TransactionCost measure to the new column.
C. Add a named query in the data source view that casts the data source column to two digits of precision. Bind the
TransactionCost measure to the new query.
D. Use the MeasureExpression measure property to change the precision of TransactionCost to two digits.
E. Use the FormatString measure property to format TransactionCost as #, ##0.00;- #,##0.00.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
You need to ascertain why Marc did not receive his reports. What should you do?
A. Search the ReportServerService_.log file for errors.
B. Search the registry for errors.
C. Use SQL Server Management Studio to search the SQL Server logs for errors.
D. Use the Windows Event Viewer to search the Application log for errors.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project. The model has tables named Invoice Line
Items and Products.
The Invoice Line Items table has the following columns:
Product Id
Unit Sales Price
The Unit Sales Price column stores the unit price of the product sold.
The Products table has the following columns:
Product Id
Maximum Sales Price
The Maximum Sales Price column is available only in the Products table.
You add a column named Is Overpriced to the Invoice Line Items table. The Is Overpriced column must store a value of
TRUE if the value of the Unit Sales Price is greater than the value of the Maximum Sales Price. Otherwise, a value of
FALSE must be stored.
You need to define the Data Analysis Expressions (DAX) expression for the Is Overpriced column.
Which DAX formula should you use? (Each answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.)pass4itsure 70-466 exam question q4

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 5
You are designing a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report that sources data from a Microsoft Azure SQL
Database database.
The report must display the value and status of a Key Performance Indicator (KPI).
Which report item should you use? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Indicator
B. Data Bar
C. Image
D. Sparkline
E. Gauge
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
You are designing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube.
You need to create a measure to count unique customers.
What should you do?
A. Use role playing dimensions.
B. Use the Business Intelligence Wizard to define dimension intelligence.
C. Add a measure that uses the Count aggregate function to an existing measure group.
D. Add a measure that uses the DistinctCount aggregate function to an existing measure group.
E. Add a measure group that has one measure that uses the DistinctCount aggregate function.
F. Add a calculated measure based on an expression that counts members filtered by the Exists and NonEmpty
functions.
G. Add a hidden measure that uses the Sum aggregate function. Add a calculated measure aggregating the measure
along the time dimension.
H. Create several dimensions. Add each dimension to the cube.
I. Create a dimension. Then add a cube dimension and link it several times to the measure group.
J. Create a dimension. Create regular relationships between the cube dimension and the measure group. Configure the
relationships to use different dimension attributes.
K. Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the IsAggrcgatable property to False and then set the
DefaultMember property. Use a regular relationship between the dimension and measure group.
L. Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the IsAggregatable property to False and then set the
DefaultMember property. Use a many-to-many relationship to link the dimension to the measure group.
M. Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the IsAggregatable property to False and then set the
DefaultMember property. Use a many-to-many relationship to link the dimension to the measure group.
N. Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the ValueColumn property, set the IsAggregatable property to
False, and then set the DefaultMember property. Configure the cube dimension so that it does not have a relationship
with the measure group. Add a calculated measure that uses the MemberValue attribute property.
O. Create a new named calculation in the data source view to calculate a rolling sum. Add a measure that uses the Max
aggregate function based on the named calculation.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 7
You are working with a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) instance in native mode. An item role named Reports
Writer is present on the server.
The Reports Writer role cannot view and modify report caching parameters.
You need to ensure that the Reports Writer role can view and modify report caching parameters.
What should you do?
A. Add the Manage all subscriptions task to the Reports Writer role.
B. Add the Manage report history task to the Reports Writer role.
C. Add the View data sources task to the Reports Writer role.
D. Add the Manage individual subscriptions task to the Reports Writer role.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
You are modifying a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube.
The cube consists of a single measure group that contains the following measures:
Total Quantity On Hand
Average Quantity On Hand
The measure group has a single partition that uses the MOLAP storage mode.
You need to modify the cube design to ensure that the Total Quantity On Hand measure is updated in real-time and that
Average Quantity On Hand measure is updated hourly.
What should you do?
A. Create a new measure group for the Total Quantity On Hand measure. Configure the storage mode for the new
measure group\\’s partition to ROLAP.
B. Create a drillthrough action that will query the underlying data source in real time for the Total Quantity On Hand
measure.
C. Change the storage mode of the partition to ROLAP.
D. Add an additional MOLAP partition to the measure group.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
A multinational retailer has retail locations on several continents. A single SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
instance is used for global reporting.
A SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance for each continent hosts a multidimensional database named
RetailSales. Each RetailSales database stores data only for the continent in which it resides. All of the SSAS instances
are
configured identically.
The cube names and objects are identical.
Reports must meet the following requirements:
A report parameter named ServerName must be defined in each report. When running a report, users must be
prompted to select a server instance. The report data source must use the Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services data
source
type.
You need to create a data source to meet the requirements.
How should you define the expression that is assigned to the connection string property of the data source?
A. =”Server=” and ParametersIServerName.Value and “; Initial Catalog=RetailSales”
B. =”Data [email protected]; Initial Catalog=RetailSales”
C. =”Data Source=” and Parameters!ServerName.Value and “;Initial Catalog=RetailSales”
D. =”Server=” and Parameters!ServerName.Value
E. =”[email protected]; Initial Catalog=RetailSales”
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project for a Power View solution.
You need to grant permission for salespersons to view only the data based on their sales territory.
What should you do?
A. Create a member and then create a Data Analysis Expressions (DAX) filter.
B. Create a member and then create a Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) filter.
C. Use SQL Server Management Studio to create a role. Then create a Data Analysis Expressions (DAX) filter.
D. Use SQL Server Management Studio to create a role. Then create a Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) filter.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
You are developing a multidimensional project that includes a dimension named Organization.
The dimension is based on the DimOrganization table in the data warehouse.
The following diagram illustrates the table design.pass4itsure 70-466 exam question q11

The Organization dimension includes a parent-child hierarchy named Organizations. The dimension includes the
following dimension attributes:
Organization, which is a key attribute
Organizations, which defines the parent-child hierarchy
Currency Code, which is a regular attribute
When users browse the dimension, three hierarchies are visible to them.
You need to ensure that the Organization hierarchy is not visible to users.
What should you do?
A. Set the AttributeHierarchyDisplayFolder property to Null for the Organization attribute.
B. Delete the Organization attribute.
C. Set the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property to False for the Organization attribute.
D. Set the AttributeHierarchyVisible property to False for the Organization attribute.
Correct Answer: D
The DimensionAttribute.AttributeHierarchyVisible Property gets or sets whether the attribute hierarchy is visible to client
applications. References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/
microsoft.analysisservices.dimensionattribute.attributehierarchyvisible.aspx

 

QUESTION 12
You are modifying a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional database.
You have identified a dimension that is no longer used by any cubes.
You need to delete the dimension.
What should you do?
A. Write a Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) command to drop the dimension from the database.
B. Write a Data Mining Extensions (DMX) command to drop the dimension from the database.
C. Write a T-SQL command to drop the dimension from the database.
D. Delete the dimension by using SQL Server Management Studio Object Explorer.
Correct Answer: D
To delete a dimension in SQL Server Data Tools.
In Solution Explorer, right-click the dimension that you want to delete, and then click Delete.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/multidimensional-models/databasedimensions-modify-or-delete-a-database-dimension-in-solution-explorer

 

QUESTION 13
After you deploy the RegionalSales report, you attempt to configure the subscriptions.
You discover that the subscription creation screen does not display the option to deliver the report by email.
You need to ensure that subscriptions can be delivered by using email.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Rsmgrpolicy.config file.
B. From Central Administration, modify the SMTP settings of the SharePoint Server server farm.
C. Modify the Rssrvrpolicy.config file.
D. From Central Administration, modify the properties of the Reporting Service Application.
Correct Answer: B

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Windows Server 2012

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-417: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-417.aspx
This exam is intended for IT professionals who want to validate the skills and knowledge necessary to implement the Windows Server 2012
core infrastructure services. Candidates have already earned a qualifying Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2000,
or Windows XP certification

pass4itsure 70-417 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Exam 70-410

  • Install and configure servers
  • Configure server roles and features
  • Configure Hyper-V
  • Install and administer Active Directory

Exam 70-411

  • Deploy, manage, and maintain servers
  • Configure network services and access
  • Configure a network policy server infrastructure
  • Configure and manage Active Directory
  • Configure and manage Group Policy

Exam 70-412

  • Configure and manage high availability
  • Configure file and storage solutions
  • Implement business continuity and disaster recovery
  • Configure network services
  • Configure access and information protection solutions

Latest Microsoft Windows Server 2012 70-417 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller
named DC1 and a member server named Server1. Server1 has the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature
installed.
On DC1, you configure Windows Firewall to allow all of the necessary inbound ports for IPAM.
On Server1, you open Server Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1

You need to ensure that you can use IPAM on Server1 to manage DNS on DC1. What should you do?
A. Add Server1 to the Remote Management Users group.
B. Modify the outbound firewall rules on Server1.
C. Add Server1 to the Event Log Readers group.
D. Modify the inbound firewall rules on Server1.
Correct Answer: C

pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-1

The exhibit shows (in the details tab) that firewall rules are OK for DNS management (DNS RPC Access Status
Unblocked) But it shows too that Event log Access Status is blocked (which by the way blocks the IPAM Access Status)
=> We should solve this by adding the Server1 computer account to the Event Log Readers group Understand and
Troubleshoot IP Address Management (IPAM) in Windows Server 8 Beta (download.microsoft.com) IPAM Access
Monitoring

pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-2

IPAM Access Settings Manual provisioning For manual provisioning, ensure that the required access settings are
appropriately configured on the target server manually. Verify Access Verify that IPAM access status is listed as
unblocked indicating that manual or GPO based provisioning is successfully complete. For the IPAM access status
value to be allowed, all of the access sub-states shown in the details pane should be marked as allowed. These access
states are: DNS RPC access status DHCP RPC access status Event log access status DHCP audit share access status
Troubleshooting Access Issues If any of the access sub-states for managed server roles is showing in the Blocked
state, check that the corresponding setting is enabled on the target server. For details of access setting to sub-state
mapping refer to the IPAM Access Monitoring section in this guide. For GPO based provisioning, the GPResult
command line tool can be used to troubleshoot group policy update issues. The provisioning task setup by IPAM DHCP
and DNS GPOs creates a troubleshooting log in the location%windir%\temp named IpamDhcpLog.txt and
IpamDnsLog.txt respectively. http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/winserver8gen/thread/c882c077
-61bd45f6-ab47-735bd728d3bc/ IPAM -Unblock access to a DC? The process to manually (not GPO based) unblock a
DNS/DC server is:

pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-3

1.
Enable DNS RPC access by enabling the following inbound Firewall rules:
a) DNS Service (RPC)
b) DNS Service (RPC Endpoint Mapper)
2.
Enable remote management access by enabling the following inbound Firewall rules:
a) Remote
b) Service Management (RPC)
b) Remote Service Management (RPC-EPMAP)
3.
Enable Remote Event Log Management RPC access by enabling the following inbound
Firewall rules:
a) Remote Event Log Management (RPC)
b) Remote Event Log Management (RPC-EPMAP)
4.
Add the IPAM machine acct to the Event Log Readers domain security group. See the example below.
This view is from Active Directory Users and Computers \contoso.com \Builtin \Event Log Readers:

pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-4 pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-5

Also, there should be a Details tab at the bottom that summarizes whether or not the correct firewall ports and the Event
Log Access status are unblocked
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj878313.aspx

 

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server
2012 R2.
You pre-create a read- only domain controller (RODC) account named RODC1. You export the settings of RODC1 to a
file named File1.txt.
You need to promote RODC1 by using File1.txt.
Which tool should you use?
A. The Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
B. The Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet
C. The Dism command
D. The Dcpromo command
E. The Install-ADDSDomainController cmdlet
Correct Answer: D
DCPromo is gone, HOWEVER, it is still used for unattend installations using unattended files. This allows administrators
the chance to get used to using powershell commands instead of the unattended file.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh472162.aspx NB: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj205467.aspx
Install-WindowsFeature Installs one or more Windows Server roles, role services, or features on either the local or a
specified remote server that is running Windows Server 2012 R2. This cmdlet is equivalent to and replaces Add-
WindowsFeature, the cmdlet that was used to install roles, role services, and features in Windows Server 2008 R2. So
the 2 first answers are the same and we only have one choice here…

 

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains domain controllers that
run Windows Server 2008 Service Pack 2 (SP2), Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1), Windows Server
2012, and Windows Server 2012 R2.
A domain controller named DC1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 is backed up daily.
During routine maintenance, you delete a group named Group1.
You need to recover Group1 and identify the names of the users who were members of Group1 prior to its deletion. You
want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?
A. Perform an authoritative restore of Group1.
B. Mount the most recent Active Directory backup.
C. Use the Recycle Bin to restore Group1.
D. Reactivate the tombstone of Group1.
Correct Answer: A
The Active Directory Recycle Bin does not have the ability to track simple changes to objects. If the object itself is not
deleted, no element is moved to the Recycle Bin for possible recovery in the future. In other words, there is no rollback
capacity for changes to object properties, or, in other words, to the values of these properties.
There is another approach you should be aware of. Tombstone reanimation (which has nothing to do with zombies)
provides the only way to recover deleted objects without taking a DC offline, and it\\’s the only way to recover a deleted
object\\’s
identity information, such as its objectGUID and objectSid attributes. It neatly solves the problem of recreating a deleted
user or group and having to fix up all the old access control list (ACL) references, which contain the objectSid of the
deleted object.
Restores domain controllers to a specific point in time, and marks objects in Active Directory as being authoritative with
respect to their replication partners.

 

QUESTION 4
You administer an Active Directory Domain Services forest that includes an Active Directory Federation Services (AD
FS) server and Azure Active Directory. The fully qualified domain name of the AD FS server is adfs.contoso.com.
You must implement single sign-on (SSO) for a cloud application that is hosted in Azure. All domain users must be able
to use SSO to access the application. You need to configure SSO for the application.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use the Azure Active Directory Synchronization tool to configure user synchronization.
B. Use the AD FS Configuration wizard to specify the domain and administrator for the Azure Active Directory service.
C. Create a trust between AD FS and Azure Active Directory.
D. In the Azure management portal, activate directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/hh967643.aspx https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/jj205461.aspx

 

QUESTION 5
You have a Direct Access Server named Server1 running Server 2012. You need to add prevent users from accessing
websites from an Internet connection.
What should you configure?
A. Split Tunneling
B. Security Groups
C. Force Tunneling
D. Network Settings
Correct Answer: C
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/tomshinder/2010/03/30/more-on-directaccess-split-tunneling-and-force-tunneling/

 

QUESTION 6
Your network contains two DNS servers named DNS1 and DNS2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. DNS1 has a
primary zone named contoso.com. DNS2 has a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
You need to log the zone transfer packets sent between DNS1 and DNS2. What should you configure?
A. debug logging from DNS Manager
B. logging from Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
C. monitoring from DNS Manager
D. a Data Collector Set (DCS) from Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: C
Monitoring DNS with the DNS Console
The DNS management console includes functionality that enables you to use the console to monitor DNS activity:
*Event Logging tab: You can access the Event Logging tab located within the Properties dialog box of the DNS server to
specify the DNS events that you want to monitor. Through the Event Logging tab, you can limit the events which are
written to the DNS Events log.
*Monitoring tab: The Monitoring tab is also located within the Properties dialog box of the DNS server. This tab allows
you to test querying of the DNS server.
References:

 

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1).
Both servers are member servers.
On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server
Manager.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager.
Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemoting cmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.psl script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfiguration cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
Correct Answer: BD
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell
On the computer that you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the following, and then press Enter.
Set-ExecutionPolicy –ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D)
Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall rule exceptions.
Configure-SMRemoting.ps1 -force –enable (B)
References: https://msandbu.wordpress.com/2012/08/26/administer-other-windows-server-from-server-manager-2012/

 

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain
controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are
configured as shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q8

Active Directory Recycle Bin is enabled.
You discover that a support technician accidentally removed 100 users from an Active Directory group named Group1
an hour ago.
You need to restore the membership of Group1.
What should you do?
A. Perform an authoritative restore.
B. Perform tombstone reanimation.
C. Modify the isDeleted attribute of Group1.
D. Apply a virtual machine snapshot to DC2.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Your network contains 25 Web servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure auditing policies that meet the following requirements:
Generate an event each time a new process is created.
Generate an event each time a user attempts to access a file share.
Which two auditing policies should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate two auditing policies in the answer
area.
A. Audit access management (Not Defined)
B. Audit directory service access (Not Defined)
C. Audit logon events (Not Defined)
D. Audit object access(Not Defined)
E. Audit policy change(Not Defined)
F. Audit privilege use (Not Defined)
G. Audit process tracking (Not Defined)
H. Audit system events(Not Defined)
Correct Answer: DG
Audit Object Access
Determines whether to audit the event of a user accessing an object (for example, file, folder, registry key, printer, and
so forth) which has its own system access control list (SACL) specified.
Audit Process Tracking
Determines whether to audit detailed tracking information for events such as program activation, process exit, handle
duplication, and indirect object access.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc976403.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc976411.aspx

 

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an organizational unit
(OU) named AHServers.OU.
You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP01 to AllServer.OU. GPO1 is configured as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q10

You need to ensure that GPO1 only applies to servers that have Remote Desktop Services (RDS) installed. What
should you configure?
A. Item-level targeting
B. WMI Filtering
C. Security Filtering
D. Block Inheritance
Correct Answer: B
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filters allow you to dynamically determine the scope of Group Policy
objects (GPOs) based on attributes of the target computer. When a GPO that is linked to a WMI filter is applied on the
target computer, the filter is evaluated on the target computer. If the WMI filter evaluates to false, the GPO is not
applied. If the WMI filter evaluates to true, the GPO is applied.

 

QUESTION 11
You have a group managed Service Account name Account01. Only three servers named Server01, Server02 and
Server03 are allowed to use Account01 service account. You plan to decommission Server01. You need to prevent
Server01 from using the Account01 service account. The solution must ensure that Server02 and Server03 continue to
use the Account01 service account.
What command should you run?
A. Set-ADServiceAccount
B. Uninstall-ADServiceAccount
C. Remove-ADServiceAccount
D. Reset-ADServiceAccountPassword
Correct Answer: D
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee617190.aspx https://www.petri.com/restrict-privileged-accounts-with-authentication-silos-in-windows-server-2012-r2

 

QUESTION 12
Your role of Network Administrator at ABC.com includes the management of the Active Directory Domain Services (AD
DS) domain named ABC.com. The network includes servers that run Windows Server 2012.
The network includes virtual machines (VMs) running on Windows Server 2012 Hyper-V host servers.
A Hyper-V host server named ABC-HV01 hosts several VMs for customers of the business. ABCHV01 has 64 GB of
RAM, 4 network adapters and 4 hex-core processors. To enable accurate billing for customers, you need to measure
the
resource usage of the VMs running on the ABC-HV01.
You need a way of measuring the following:
Average CPU usage.
Minimum, Maximum and Average physical memory usage.
Amount of disk space allocated to a virtual machine.
Total incoming and outgoing network traffic for a virtual network adapter.
What should you do?
A. You should configure Port Mirroring.
B. You should configure Resource Metering.
C. You should configure Single-root I/O virtualization.
D. You should configure Integration Services.
E. You should configure Resource control.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Your network contains a Hyper-V host named Hyperv1. Hyperv1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Hyperv1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. All of the virtual machines run Windows Server
2008 R2.
You need to view the amount of memory resources and processor resources that VM4 currently uses.
Which tool should you use on Hyperv1?
A. Task Manager
B. Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM)
C. Hyper-V Manager
D. Resource Monitor
Correct Answer: C

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