Index

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QUESTION 46
Which function is performed by the Community String field defined in a trap PDU?
A. enable reliable delivery of messages
B. allow authentication by management station
C. isolate the PDU within a defined region of the network
D. enable the routing of messages

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Study the exhibit carefully. Routers P4S-RA, P4S-RB, P4S-RC, and P4S-RD are all performing OSPF within a single area and have OSPF graceful restart configured and running. 10.1.2.0/24 is being advertised only through BGP and the best path between routers P4S-RC and P4S-RD is through router P4S-RB. Configure BGP graceful restart on routers P4S-RB, P4S-RC, and P4S-RD, but not on router P4S-RA. What will happen to traffic from 10.1.1.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24 after router P4S-RB performs a graceful restart?

A. be tunneled from router P4S-RD to router P4S-RA through router P4S-RC.
B. continue to flow normally
C. be dropped at router P4S-RB for a period of time after the graceful restart
D. switch to the path through router P4S-RC without interruption

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Virtual Private LAN Services (VPLS) is a class of VPN that supports the connection of multiple sites in a single bridged domain over a managed IP/MPLS network. VPLS presents an Ethernet interface to customers, simplifying the LAN/WAN boundary for Service Providers and customers, and enabling rapid and flexible service provisioning, because the service bandwidth is not tied to the physical interface. Which of these statements best describes VPLS?
A. Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B. Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C. VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D. Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
Study the exhibit carefully. Configure P4S-R1, P4S-R2, and P4S-R3 to run EIGRP on all their connected
interfaces. P4S-R2 is also configured as an EIGRP stub.
Which EIGRP routes are in the local topology table at P4S-R3?
A. 172.30.2.0/24, 172.30.3.0/31 and 172.30.3.2/31
B. 172.30.0.0/16
C. There’s not enough information provided to know what would be in the topology table at P4S-R3.
D. 172.30.1.0/24, 172.30.2.0/24, 172.30.3.0/31 and 172.30.3.2/31

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which two reasons are for instrumenting your network and network devices to collect performance data? (Choose two.)
A. to route traffic around constrained choke points in the network
B. to enable capacity planning decisions
C. to determine the impact of jitter and latency on application performance
D. to determine the locations at which QoS needs to be implemented

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 51
In this network presented in the following exhibit, traffic destined for 10.1.3.1 arrives at P4S-R5. Which
path will be taken by the traffic from here and why?

A. It will take the path P4S-R3, P4S-R2, P4S-R1, because OSPF always prefers paths within an area.
B. It will not take any path; the traffic will be dropped because P4S-R2 is in a different autonomous system than P4S-R1 or P4S-R3.
C. It will take the path the path P4S-R4, P4S-R3, P4S-R2, P4S-R1, because this is the lowest cost path.
D. It will not take any path; the traffic will be dropped because the summary (type 3) LSA advertised by P4S-R1 into area 1 will not be readvertised back into area 0.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
When is the site-to-site remote access model appropriate?
A. for multiple ISDN connections
B. for modem concentrated dial-up connections
C. for a group of users in the same vicinity sharing a connection
D. for use by mobile users

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Which three statements are correct about OSPF route summarization? (Choose three.)
A. A flat addressing scheme is required in order to summarize OSPF routes.
B. OSPF internal routes can be summarized only at the ABRs.
C. OSPF type 5 external routes can be summarized only at the ASBRs.
D. Route summarization can lead to a more stable network.

MB6-703 exam
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 54
Which option is true about routing control while using routing protocols in a DMVPN network (or any GRE-over-IPsec network)?
A. Routing of the data plane traffic should be carried out by means of the GRE tunnel and a separate routing instance should be used to handle routing of the crypto endpoints.
B. The control plane traffic for the crypto endpoints should be routed through the GRE tunnel; the control plane traffic for the data plane traffic should travel via the transport network.
C. If the network is a private MPLS network, the routing for the data plane traffic and the crypto endpoints should be run outside of the GRE tunnel.
D. The routing used to establish the crypto endpoints should include information for the data networks behind the endpoints.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 150
How are IP spoofing attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. Filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall.
B. IDS as the host and network levels.
C. E-mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning.
D. OS and ISD detection.
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall.
F. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ESP edge and midsize network edge router.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
At the egress of the ISP router, RFC 1918 and RFC 2827 filtering is configured to mitigate against source-
address spoofing of local networks and private address ranges.
Reference: Cisco Courseware pages 6-8, 6-9

QUESTION 151
How many modules exist in the SAFE SMR midsize network design?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The SAFE medium network design consists of three modules: the corporate Internet module, the campus module, and the WAN module. SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 152
What are the two options for the remote sites connecting into the SAFE SMR medium design? (Choose two)
A. ATM Connection only.
B. IPSec VPN into the corporate Internet module.
C. ISDN
D. Frame Relay Connection only.
E. Private WAN connection using the WAN module.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: From a WAN perspective, there are two options for the remote sites connecting into the medium design. The first is a private WAN connection using the WAN module;the second is an IPSec VPN into corporate internet module.? REF;Safe white papers;page 16 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 153
Which threats are expected in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? (Choose three)
A. Port redirection
B. Application layer attacks
C. IP spoofing
D. Packet sniffers
E. Virus and Trojan Horse applications
F. Password attacks

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: At the top of the list of expected threats are:
1.
Packet sniffers-A switched infrastructure limits the effectiveness of sniffing

2.
Virus and Trojan horse applications-Host-based virus scanning prevents most viruses and many Trojan horses

3.
Password Attacks-The access control server allows for strong two-factor authentication for key applications REF;Safe white papers;22 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 154
What can mitigate the chance of a department accessing confidential information on another department’s server through the use of access control in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. General Layer 4 through 7 analysis
D. General Layer 1 through 3 analysis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Layer 3 switch provides a line of defense and prevention against internally originated attacks. It can mitigate the chance of a department accessing confidential information on another department’s server through the use of access control. For example, a network that contains marketing and research and development might segment off the R&D server to a specific VLAN and filter access to it, ensuring that only R&D staff have access to it. Reference: SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page
QUESTION 155
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? (Choose three)
A. Firewalls
B. NIDS host
C. Layer 2 switches
D. VPN Concentrator
E. Corporate servers
F. WAN router

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Key Devices Layer 3 switch-Route and switch production and management traffic within the campus module, provide distribution layer services to the building switches, and support advanced services such as traffic filtering Layer 2 switches (with private VLAN support)-Provides Layer 2 services to user workstations Corporate servers-Provides e-mail (SMTP and POP3) services to internal users, as well as delivering file, print, and DNS services to workstations User workstations-Provide data services to authorized users on the network SNMP management host-Provides SNMP management for devices NIDS host-Provides alarm aggregation for all NIDS devices in the network Syslog host(s)-Aggregates log information for firewall and NIDS hosts Access control server-Delivers authentication services to the network devices One-time password (OTP)server-Authorizes one-time password information relayed from the access control server System admin host-Provides configuration, software, and content changes on devices NIDS appliance-Provides Layer 4-to-Layer 7 monitoring of key network segments in the module REF;Safe white papers;page 21 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 156
The security team at Certkiller Inc is working on securing the network using select key devices. What are key devices in SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? (Choose three)
A. A key device is a NIDS host
B. A key device is a VPN Concentrator
C. A key device is a Firewall
D. A key device is a Syslog host
E. A key device is a WAN router
F. A key device is a Layer 3 switch

Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Campus Network: Key Devices
1.
Layer 3 switch-Route and switch production and management traffic within the campus module, provide distribution layer services to the building switches, and support advanced services such as traffic filtering

2.
Layer 2 switches (with private VLAN support)-Provides Layer 2 services to user workstations

3.
Corporate servers-Provides e-mail (SMTP and POP3) services to internal users, as well as delivering file, print, and DNS services to workstations

4.
User workstations-Provide data services to authorized users on the network

5.
SNMP management host-Provides SNMP management for devices

6.
NIDS host-Provides alarm aggregation for all NIDS devices in the network

7.
Sysloghost(s)-Aggregates log information for firewall and NIDS hosts

8.
Access control server-Delivers authentication services to the network devices

9.
One-time Password (OTP) Server-Authorizes one-time password information relayed from the access control server

10.
System admin host-Provides configuration, software, and content changes on devices

11.
NIDS appliance -Provides Layer 4-to-Layer 7 monitoring of key network segments in the module Reference: Safe white papers;page 21 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 157
The security team at Certkiller Inc is working on securing the network using select key devices. Which are the key devices in SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? (Choose three)
A. A key device are Firewalls
B. A key device are VPN Concentrator
C. A key device are WAN router
D. A key device are Syslog hosts
E. A key device are Corporate servers
F. A key device are Layer 3 switches

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Campus Network: Key Devices
1.
Layer 3 switch-Route and switch production and management traffic within the campus module, provide distribution layer services to the building switches, and support advanced services such as traffic filtering

2.
Layer 2 switches (with private VLAN support)-Provides Layer 2 services to user workstations

3.
Corporate servers-Provides e-mail (SMTP and POP3) services to internal users, as well as delivering file, print, and DNS services to workstations

4.
User workstations-Provide data services to authorized users on the network

5.
SNMP management host-Provides SNMP management for devices

6.
NIDS host-Provides alarm aggregation for all NIDS devices in the network

7.
Sysloghost(s)-Aggregates log information for firewall and NIDS hosts

8.
Access control server-Delivers authentication services to the network devices

9.
One-time Password (OTP) Server-Authorizes one-time password information relayed from the access control server

10.
System admin host-Provides configuration, software, and content changes on devices

11.
NIDS appliance-Provides Layer 4-to-Layer 7 monitoring of key network segments in the module Reference: Safe white papers;page 21 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 158
The security team at Certkiller Inc is working on securing the network using select key devices. Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? (Choose three)
A. A key device are WAN router
B. A key device are VPN Concentrator
C. A key device are Firewalls
D. A key device are NIDS hosts
E. A key device are Corporate servers
F. A key device are Layer 2 switches

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Campus Network: Key Devices
1.
Layer 3 switch-Route and switch production and management traffic within the campus module, provide distribution layer services to the building switches, and support advanced services such as traffic filtering

2.
Layer 2 switches (with private VLAN support)-Provides Layer 2 services to user workstations

3.
Corporate servers-Provides e-mail (SMTP and POP3) services to internal users, as well as delivering file, print, and DNS services to workstations

4.
User workstations-Provide data services to authorized users on the network

5.
SNMP management host-Provides SNMP management for devices

6.
NIDS host-Provides alarm aggregation for all NIDS devices in the network

7.
Sysloghost(s)-Aggregates log information for firewall and NIDS hosts

8.
Access control server-Delivers authentication services to the network devices

9.
One-time Password (OTP) Server-Authorizes one-time password information relayed from the access control server

10.
System admin host-Provides configuration, software, and content changes on devices

11.
NIDS appliance-Provides Layer 4-to-Layer 7 monitoring of key network segments in the module Reference: Safe white papers;page 21 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 159
The security team at Certkiller Inc is working on alternative designs aspects for the network. Which design alternative in the SAFE SMR midsize network design campus module?
A. An alternative design is a separate router and Layer 2 switch can be used for the core and distribution rather than the higher-performing Layer 3 switch.
B. An alternative design is a NIDS appliance can be placed in front of the firewall.
C. An alternative design is a URL filtering server can be placed on the public services segment to filter the types of Web pages employees can access.
D. An alternative design is a router between the firewall and the campus module can be eliminated.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Alternatives If the medium network is small enough, the functionality of the building switches can be rolled into the core switch, and the building switches can be eliminated. In this case, the end-user workstations would be connected directly to the core switch. Private VLAN functionality would be implemented on the core switch in order to mitigate against trust-exploitation attacks. If the performance requirements of the internal network are not high, a separate router and Layer 2 switch could be used for the core and distribution instead of the higher-performing Layer 3 switch. If desired, the separate NIDS appliance can be replaced with an integrated IDS module that fits into the core switch. This setup provides higher traffic throughput into the IDS module because it sits on the backplane of the switch, rather than being connected via a single 10/100-Mbps Ethernet port. ACLs on the switch can be used to control what traffic is sent to the IDS module. Reference: Safe white papers;page 23 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 160
The structure of Campus module in SAFE medium architecture may be altered. Choose the correct statement.
A. Both alternatives are allowed.
B. The functions of the layer 2 switch, can be integrated into the core switch.
C. If the performance requirements are not too high, the core switch can be replaced by a layer 2 switch and a router.
D. None of these alternatives are allowed.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If the medium network is small enough, the functionality of the building switches can be rolled into the core switch, and the building switches can be eliminated. If the performance requirements of the internal network are not high, a separate router and Layer 2 switch could be used for the core and distribution instead of the higher-performing Layer 3 switch. Reference: Safe white papers;page 23 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 161
What does RFC 2827 filtering prevent in the SAFE SMR midsize network design campus module?
A. Port redirection attacks.
B. Port mapping through the firewall.
C. Source-address spoofing.
D. Packet sniffers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: RFC 2827 filtering at the ingress router should also be implemented to mitigate the chance of an attacker from outside the network spoofing the addresses of the management hosts. Reference: SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 71
QUESTION 162
What is a design alternative in the SAFE SMR midsize network design campus module?
A. A NIDS appliance can be placed in front of the firewall.
B. The end-user workstations can be connected directly to the core switch.
C. The router between the firewall and the campus module can be eliminated.
D. A URL filtering can be placed on the public services segment to filter the types of Web pages employees can access.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: If the medium network is small enough, the functionality of the building switches can be rolled into the core switch, and the building switches can be eliminated. In this case, the end-user workstations would be connected directly to the core switch. Private VLAN functionality would be implemented on the core switch in order to mitigate against trust-exploitation attacks. If the performance requirements of the internal network are not high, a separate router and Layer 2 switch could be used for the core and distribution instead of the higher-performing Layer 3 switch. If desired, the separate NIDS appliance can be replaced with an integrated IDS module that fits into the core switch. This setup provides higher traffic throughput into the IDS module because it sits on the backplane of the switch, rather than being connected via a single 10/100-Mbps Ethernet port. ACLs on the switch can be used to control what traffic is sent to the IDS module. Reference: SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 23
QUESTION 163
NO: 1 Which options can be chosen for TCP session reassembly on the IDS Sensor in the SAFE SMR medium network design? (Choose two)
A. IP Reassembly
B. No reassembly
C. Loose reassembly
D. Total reassembly

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can choose three options for TCP session reassembly.

*
No Reassembly

*
Loose Reassembly

*
Strict Reassembly Reference: Cisco Secure Intrusion Detection System (Ciscopress) Page 418
QUESTION 164
What are the two options in the SAFE SMR midsize network design for WAN connections? (Choose two)
A. IPSec VPN tunnel connections.
B. Only frame relay connections.
C. Private WAN connections.
D. ATM connections.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: From a WAN perspective, there are two options for the remote sites connecting into the midium design .The first is a private WAN connection using the WAn module; the second is an IPSec VPN into the corporate Internet module. Reference: SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 16

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QUESTION 186
The Secure Client packaging tool installation generates a self-extracting auto-running executable file by saving SecuRemote properties on the Management Server and applying the properties to and open (unzipped) SecuRemote installation folder.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 187
You are a firewall administrator using SecuRemote. You are providing digital signatures to achieve both data integrity checking and verification of sender. Certificates are possible when using ________.
A. 3DES
B. IKE
C. IKE with SHIP.
D. IKE with Manual IPSec.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 188
Some VPN-1/Firewall-1 tracking options generate log entries and trigger executables. These executables take the form of:
A. User-defined executables in $FWDIR/local.
B. SNMP traps, or other functions defined by security engineers, EXCEPT socket-based applications.
C. SNMP traps, alter emails, or other functions defined by security engineers.
D. User-defined JAVA scripts in $FWDIR/bin
E. SMS traps, alert emails, or other functions defined by security engineers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 189
You are using a 56-bit encryption key called DES. Your client is concerned that this is insufficient security. You reconfigure the VPN to use the strongest encryption used by the VPN-1/Firewall-1 software. Which of the following would you use?
A. AES 256.
B. Blowfish
C. RC4
D. CAST
E. 3DES 698

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 190
The functionality of the VPN-1/Firewall-1 architecture can be divided between which workstations?
A. Enforcement Module and Policy Editor.
B. Host and Policy Editor.
C. Policy Editor, Management Server and Enforcement Module.
D. Host and Management Server.
E. Router and Management Server.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 191
Respond to unauthenticated topology requests (IKE and FWI) on the Desktop Security screen in Global Properties allow backward compatibility with earlier versions of the SecuRemote /Secure Client.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 192
You are working with a Windows NT server running the Check Point VPN-1/Firewall-1 software. Which if the following radio button options would you select from the Server Setup Properties window to configure the connect memory strategy for this configuration?
A. Minimize memory used.
B. Balance
C. Maximize Throughput File Sharing.
D. Maximize Throughput for Network Applications.
E. Make Browser Broadcast to LAN Manager 2.x Clients.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 193
The Solaris command to install the Enforcement Module software without using the Installation Wrapper is:
A. Pkgadd /d
B. Pkgadd -d
C. Pkgadd
D. Pkgadd /install
E. Pkgadd /setup

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 194
When installing the Secure Client packaging tool, users must define their VPN-1/Firewall-1 sties.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 195
The following URL specification blocks access to the /warez/illegal.html 204.32.38.254/warez/illegal.html 1
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 196
In a fully overlapping encryption domain with two gateways serving the domain which one will a SecuRemote client connect to?
A. It is preconfigured
B. The first to reply
C. They are chosen alternately
D. The nearest

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 197
What is the default port for a standard LDAP connection?
A. 389
B. 636
C. 1024
D. 23 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 198

What is an incorrect minimum requirement for a SecuRemote PC running Windows 2000?
A. 6 Mbytes spare disk space
B. 24 Mbytes memory
C. Microsoft TCP/IP support
D. 32 Mbytes memory

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 199
In which tab of an SMTP definition screen would you specify the maximum size of an email to be allowed through when using content security?
A. General
B. Match
C. Action 1
D. Action 2

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 200
How many attack types can be monitored by CPMAD?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 201
Which load balancing algorithm uses pings to determine the best server to use?
A. Server load
B. Domain
C. Round trip
D. Round robin
E. Random
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 202
How would a Secure Client user log onto the policy server? (Choose all that apply)
A. Click on the shortcut icon.
B. Pull down the file menu and click on login.
C. Pull down sites menu left click on policy server.
D. Pull down the policy menu and select “login to policy server”.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 203
Which is NOT an icon present on the top left SecuRemote desktop screen?
A. Sites/make new
B. Sites/connect
C. Sites/delete
D. Sites/properties

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 204
Which is NOT a valid parameter in the userc.C options section?
A. keepalive
B. fwm_encrypt
C. encrypt_resolver
D. encrypt_db
E. resolver_ttl

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 205
What does CPMAD stand for?
A. Checkpoints multiple access denial
B. Checkpoints malicious activity detection
C. Checkpoints malicious attack denial
D. Checkpoints memory attack detector

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 206
Which is NOT a valid content security function under the HTML weeding category in a URI definition action tab?
A. Strip applet tags
B. Strip script tags
C. Block Java code
D. Strip ActiveX tags

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 207
Which of the following is classed as a strong encryption algorithm?
A. DES
B. FWZ-1
C. 3DES
D. CAST

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 208
Which CVP anti-virus options are available? (Choose all that apply)
A. None
B. Read only
C. Read/write
D. Write only

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 209
SecuRemote uses a site-to-site VPN type. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 210
What is NOT true about LDAP?
A. The LDAP server is a module within Firewall 1.
B. It is a standard protocol.
C. FW1 uses AMC to configure accounts on an LDAP server.
D. It is based on a client/server model.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 211
Reply packets to a SecuRemote client must be routed through the same encrypting gateway that received the incoming packets. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 212
When a Secure Client user logs on the password is remembered by the daemon. How long will the password be remembered?
A. Until the next reboot.
B. For ever.
C. Until a new policy is loaded.
D. Until a connection to another site is made.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 213
When configuring an ARP entry in an windows server running a FW1. Which is the correct method?
A. Add an entry into $FWDIR/state/local.arp of the form <IP address> <TAB> <External Mac address> and restart the server.
B. Add an entry into $FWDIR/state/local.arp of the form <External Mac address> <TAB> <IP address> and restart the server.
C. Add an entry into $FWDIR/state/arp.txt of the form <IP address> <TAB> <External Mac address> and restart the server.
D. Add an entry into $FWDIR/state/local.arp of the form <IP address> <TAB> <External Mac address>

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 214
Which logical server type hides the address of the real servers from the clients?
A. HTTP redirect
B. Other
C. NAT redirect
D. HTTP NAT

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 215
When AMC initializes if there is a red X against the LDAP server (account server) what does this mean?
A. It means that the account server is not functioning.
B. It means that the account server is read only.
C. It means that the account server has not been created in the AMC.
D. It means that the account server is not accepting commands from this AMC.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 216
Before configuring a new user, group or organizational unit in an LDAP server which of the following should be done?
A. Disable schema checking and restart the LDAP server and AMC.
B. Enable schema checking and restart the LDAP server and AMC.
C. Disable schema checking but do not restart the LDAP server and AMC.
D. Enable schema checking but do not restart the LDAP server and AMC.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 217
What does LDAP stand for?
A. Long Distance Access Protocol
B. Lightweight Directory Account Provisioning
C. Limited Directory Account Protocol
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 218
MD5 is the only data integrity method applicable to the IKE scheme. True or false?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 219
What version of VPN1/FW1 introduced Secure Client?
A. 2.1
B. 3.1
C. 4.1
D. 5.1

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 220
Which is NOT a method to “hide” a rule in the rule base?
A. Click on the rule to be hidden, select the EDIT pull down menu and click on “Hide rule”.
B. Right click on the rule and select “Hide rule”.
C. Click on the rule to be hidden, then from the RULES pull down menu select HIDE and check “hide”.
D. Click on the rule to be hidden, select the MANAGE pull down menu and click on “Hide rule”.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 221
Which encryption method(s) are supported by SecuRemote client pre-version 4.0?
A. IKE
B. FWZ
C. SKIP
D. CAST

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 222
When you first connect to a certificate authority you get a warning message because the transaction to get the CA public key cannot be authenticated. What should you do?
A. Your CA has been spoofed take appropriate action.
B. Reject the key and try again, it will probably be OK next time.
C. This is normal, you may want to verify the key over the phone.
D. Reconfigure your firewall to correct the error.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 223

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QUESTION 171
Which statement below describes the most correct strategy for implementing a Rule Base?
A. Add the Stealth Rule before the last rule.
B. Umit grouping to rules regarding specific access.
C. Place the most frequently used rules at the top of the Policy and ones that are not frequently used further down.
D. Place a network-traffic rule above the administrator access rule.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 172
Which OPSEC server can be used to prevent users from access.ng certain Web sites?
A. LEA
B. AMON
C. UFP
D. CVP

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 173
You are trying to save a custom log query in R71 SmartView Tracker, but getting the following error “Could not save ‘query-name’ (Error Database is Read only). Which of the following is a likely explanation for this?
A. You have read-only rights to the Security Management Server catabase.
B. You do not have the explicit right to save a custom query in your administrator permission profile under SmartConsole customization
C. You do not have OS write permissions on the local SmartView Tracker PC in order to save the custom locally
D. Another administraor is currently connected to the Security Management Server with read/write permissions which impacts your ability to save custom log queries to the Security Management Server.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 174
Which of these security policy Changes Optimize security Gateway performances?
A. Use automatic NAT rules instead of manual NAT rules when ever possible
B. Putting the Least-Used rule at the top o of the rule Base
C. Using groups within groups in the manual Nat Rule Base
D. Using Domain objects in rules when possible

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 175
How can you configure an application to automatically launch on the Security Management Server when traffic is dropped Security Policy?
A. Pop-up alert script
B. User-defined alert script
C. Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts
D. SNMP trap alert script

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 176
You have an NGX R65 have gateway running on Security platform. The Gateway also serves as a Policy Server. When you run patch add CD from security Gateway R71 CD-ROM. What does this command allow you to upgrade?
A. Only the R71 Security Gateway
B. Only the patch utility is upgraded using this command
C. All products, except the Policy Server
D. Both the operating system and all Check Point products

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 177
Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate a remote Security Gateway. After selecting packages Select / Add from CD, the:
A. Entire contents of the CD-ROM arc copied to the packages directory on the selected remote Security Gateway
B. Selected package is copied to the Package Repository on the Security Management: Server
C. Entire contents of the CD-ROM are copied to the Package Repository on the Security Management Server
D. Selected package is copied to the packages directory on the selected remote Security Gateway

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 178
Which of the options below best describes the difference between the Drop action and Reject action? (assume TCP is specified in the service column of your tulebase)
A. Drop action is the same as Reject action
B. With Drop action, the sender is not notified but with Reject action, the user is notified
C. Reject action is the same as Drop action
D. With Drop action, the sender is authenticated but with Reject action, the user is not authenticated
E. With Drop action, the sender is notified but with Reject action, the user is not Notified

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 179
Whitfield Diffie and martin Hellman gave their names to what standard?
A. An encryption scheme that makes pre-shared keys obsolete
B. An algorithm that is used in IPsec QuickMode and as an additional option in IPsec QuickMode (PFS)
C. A key exchange protocol for the advanced Encryption Standard
D. A key agreement / derivation protocaols the constructs secure keys over an insecure channel

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 180
Which tool will you use prior to installation to reduce the risk of incompatibility with the deployment to R71?
A. Compatibility Tool
B. cpconfig
C. Post-Upgrade Verification Tool
D. Pre-Upgrade Verification Tool
E. cpinfo

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 181
You would use the Hide Rule feature to:
A. Make rules invisible to incoming packets.
B. View only a few rules without the distraction of others
C. Hide rules from read-only administrators.
D. Hide rules from a SYN / ACK attack

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 182
To monitor all traffic between a network and the internet on a Security Platform Gateway, what is the best utility to use?
A. Snoop
B. Cpinfo
C. Infoview
D. Tcpdump

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 183
SmarUpdate is the primary tool used for upgrading Check Point gateways. When upgrading your gateway, what feature will you choose if want to upgrade all packages installed on your gateway?
A. Minimal Effort Upgrade
B. Add Package to Repository
C. Upgrading the Gateway
D. Upgrade All Packages
E. Zero Effort
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 184
YOu are responsible for configuration of Meg a Corn’s Check Point Firewall. You need to allow two Nat rules to match a connection. Is it possible? Give the best answer
A. Yes. it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only when using Automatic NAT(bidirectional NAT)
B. No, it is not possible to have more one NAT rule matching a connection. When the firewall receives a packet blonging to a concentration, it compares it against the Rule Base, then the second rule, and so on When it finds a rule that matches, it stops checking and applies that rule.
C. Yes, it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only in using Manaual NAT (bidirectional NAT0
D. Yes, there are always as many active NAT rules as there are connections.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 185
Which feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?
A. Policy Package management
B. dbexport/dbimport
C. Database Revision Control
D. upgrade_export/upgrade_import

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 186
For normal packet transation of an acceped communication to a host protocol by a Security Gate Way how many lines per packet are recorded on a packet analyzer like wire Shark using fw monitor?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. None

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 187
A digital signature:
A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
B. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
C. Decrypts data to its original form.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 188
After implementing static address translation to allow internet traffic to an internal web server on your DMZ. You notice that any Nated connections to that machine are being dropped by anti-spoofing protection which of the following is most likely cause?
A. The global properties settings translation on client side is checked. But the topology on the external change topology to others+
B. The global properties settings translation on client side is Unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to others+ change topology is external C. The global properties settings translation on client side is checked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to be internal-network defined by IP and mask. Uncheck the Global properties setting Translation on Client side.
C. The global properties settings translation on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to be internal-network defined by IP and mask. Click the Global properties setting Translation on Client side.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 189
What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new packages with smartUpdate?
A. SmartUpdate GUI PC
B. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C. A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package D. SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 190
You are installing your R71Security Gateway. Which is NOT a valid option for the hardware platform?
A. Crossbeam
B. Solaris
C. Windows
D. IPSO

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 191
You are installing a Security Management Server Yoursecurity plan calls for three administrators for this particular server. How many van you create during installation’? A. Depends on the License installed on the Security Management Server B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access C. One
D. As many as you want
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 192
Crara wants to monitor the top services on her security Gateway(fw-chicago), but she is getting an error message. Other security gateways are reporting time information except a new security gateway that was just recently deployed. Analyze the error message from the out below and determine what Cara can do to correct the problem?

A. She should re-install the security policy on the security Gateway since it was using the default rule base
B. She should create a firewall rule to allow the CPMI traffic back to her smart console. C. Shen should let the monitoring run longer in order for it to collect sampled data D. She should edit the security Gateway object and enable the monitoring Software Blade

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 193
Your R71 security management server is instaled on secure platform. You plan to schedule the security management server to run Log switch automatically every 48 hours. How do you create the schedule?
A. Create time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select the time object’s global properties > logs and master window, to schedule a log switch B. Create time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary security management object’s logs and master window, enable schedule log switch, and select time object
B. Create time object, and add 48 hours as th \e interval. Open the security Gateway objects logs and masters window, enable schedule log switch, and select the time object D. On a secure platform Security management Server, this can only the accomplished by configuring the fw logswithch command via the cron utility

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 194
Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys. Which of the following options will end the intruder’s access after the next Phase 2 exchange occurs?
A. Perfect Forward Secrcy
B. SHA1 Hash Completion
C. Phase 3Key Revocation
D. M05 Hash Completion
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 195
Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R71 configuration?
A. Policy Package Management
B. Copying the $PWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf directories to an other server C. Upgrade_export command
C. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 196
You are connected that a message may have been increased and retransmitted, thus compromising the security of the communication, You attach a code to the electronically transmitted message that uniquelu identifies the sender. Thiscode is Known as a(n):
A. diffle-Helman verification
B. digital signature
C. private Key
D. AES flag

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 197
If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?
A. Domain name resolution]
B. Overlapping VPN Domains
C. Secure Internal Communications(SIC)
D. Connectivity between the R71 Gateway and LDAP server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 198
When you use the Global Properties default settings on R71. Which type of traffic will be dropped?
A. RIP traffic
B. Smart Update connections
C. Outgoing traffic orginating from the Security Gateway D. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 199
You have not performed software upgrade to NGX R71. You have upgraded your license and every time you try to run commands such as cplic print; cpstop, you receive all sort of errors. In order to resolve this you will have to:
A. Remove the software
B. Do nothing. The error will go away with time
C. Remove the upgraded license
D. Upgrade the software to version NGX
E. Re-upgrade the license to the version before the upgrade
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 200
The user directory software blade is use to integrate which of the following with security gateway R71?
A. RADIUS server
B. Account management client server
C. User authority server
D. LDAP server

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 201

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Question: 26
An administrator needs to set up a new employee with administrative access to an existing WebSphere cell. What administrative security roles must the administrator have in order to grant the new employee operator access?

A. The operator role is required to assign another administrator operator access.
B. The administrator must have administrator role access in order to make the new administrator an operator.
C. The administrator must be the primary administrative user in order to grant security roles to new administrators.
D. The Admin Security Manager role is required so that the administrator can assign new users to administrative roles.

Answer: D
Question: 27
A company maintains several different LDAP directory servers to contain a registry of user IDs and passwords. How can an administrator make all of the user IDs and passwords in these directories available to WebSphere security?
A. Configure the LDAP directory servers as generic servers.
B. Configure a federated repository including all of the LDAP directory servers.
C. Configure WebSphere security to authenticate against all of the LDAP servers
D. Configure a standalone LDAP registry for each directory server and enable multiple realms.

Answer: B
Question: 28
In addition to the normal process for assembling an application, which one of the following tasks must be performed if the EAR file contains a Web services-enabled module?
A. Generate EJB resource mappings.
B. Generate deployment code for the application.
C. Redefine the bindings properties.
D. Edit the annotations or deployment descriptors.

Answer: B
Question: 29
It is determined that a single class loader is needed for all of the modules in all of the enterprise applications on an application server. What action should the administrator take to implement this?
A. Set the Classloader policy on the application server to single
B. Set the Classloader policy on the application server to Use an isolated class loader
C. Set each applications EAR class loader policy to Single class loader for application
D. Set each applications WAR class loader policy to Single class loader for application

Answer: A
Question: 30
Which action below must be performed to ensure that requests routed through the Web server can reach a Web application deployed in WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0?
A. Security is enabled on the administrative console.
B. An updated plugin-cfg.xml is generated and propagated to the Web server.
C. The Web server and the WebSphere Application Server must be installed on the same physical server.

D. The Web server plug-in and the WebSphere Application Server must be installed on the same
physical server.

Answer: B
Question: 31
What is the correct console command to execute a wsadmin script file in WebSphere Application Server, ND, V7.0?
A. wsadmin -f <script_file>
B. wsadmin <script_file>
C. wsadmin /file: <script_file>
D. wsadmin @executeScript (script file will be prompted)

Answer: A
Question: 32
To use a message-driven bean (MDB) to communicate with the default messaging provider, the administrator must create which one of the following?
A. JDBC provider
B. JCA resource adapter
C. JMS connection factory
D. JMS activation specification

Answer: D
Question: 33
In a Java EE application, how are EJB resources protected?
A. Security constraints
B. Method permissions
C. Java 2 security policy files
D. Administrative permissions

Answer: B
Question: 34
An application which uses JMS clients will be deployed to a stand-alone application server. Messages will be produced by a session EJB and consumed by a message-driven bean (MDB) via a queue destination. What JMS resources must be configured by an administrator to support this application?
A. Destination, queue point, mediation
B. Destination, connection factory, data store
C. Message points, destination, connection factory
D. Queue, connection factory, activation specification

Answer: D
Question: 35
Applications that need to create additional persistent bindings of objects associated with a specific node can bind those objects under which of the following types of namespace partition?
A. Server roots

B. Cell persistent
C. Node persistent
D. System namespace

Answer: C
Question: 36
Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server?
A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future.
C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security.
D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.

Answer: B
Question: 37
Which one of the following statements is true about scoping resources in WebSphere Application Server?
A. When a resource is defined at a more general scope, greater isolation is provided.
B. In the administrative console, All scopes can be selected to create a new resource.
C. Resources that are defined at more specific scopes override duplicate resources that are defined at more general scopes.
D. Resources such as Java Database Connectivity (JDBC) providers, namespace bindings, or shared libraries can only be defined at a single scope.

Answer: C
Question: 38
A developer informs an administrator that a servlet in one of the Web modules of a new enterprise application needs to access code in a native library. The administrator creates a shared library and adds the native library to its Native library path. What else does the administrator need to do to ensure that the servlet can access the native library without risk of an UnsatisfiedLinkError? Using the administrative console, select:
A. Use an isolated class loader for this shared library on the shared library settings page and associate the shared library with the Web modules class loader.
B. Classes loaded with parent class loader first on the settings page for the enterprise applications class loader and associate the shared library with the enterprise applications class loader.
C. Use an isolated class loader for this shared library on the shared library settings page and inform the developer of the name of the shared library so the developer can include it in the appropriate Java code.
D. Classes loaded with local class loader first on the settings page for the Web modules class loader and associate the shared library with the Web modules class loader.
Answer: A
Question: 39

When an administrator creates a service integration bus (SIBus) destination, which one of the
following tasks must be performed?
A. Scope the bus destination to a specific cluster.
B. Assign the destination to a specific bus member.
C. Select an appropriate mediation for the bus destination.
D. Create the appropriate message point for the bus destination.

Answer: B
Question: 40
If a deployed application is mapped to a Web server, an updated plug-in configuration file must be generated and propagated. By viewing the plug-in configuration file, how can an administrator determine if the mapping was successful? There will be a:
A. Property element under Transport with a Name attribute equal to the path of the mapped application.
B. URI element under UriGroup with a Name attribute equal to the context root of the mapped application.
C. Server element under ServerCluster with a Name attribute equal to the .ear file of the mapped application.
D. VirtualHost element under VirtualHostGroup with a Name attribute equal to the assigned port number of the mapped application.

Answer: B
Question: 41
When adding a new member to a cluster, why is it necessary for an administrator to select the option for generating unique HTTP ports?
A. To enable encryption over the secure HTTP ports
B. To prevent other applications from using these ports
C. To avoid port conflicts with other servers on the same node
D. To ensure that cluster members on different hosts have unique ports

Answer: C
Question: 42
Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A. wsadmin
B. The administrative agent
C. The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module

Answer: C
Question: 43
A cluster, Cluster1, is a member of the service integration bus (SIBus) Bus1 and the host of a queue destination Destination1. When Cluster1 was added to Bus1, the High availability messaging engine policy was selected. An administrator will deploy an application containing an MDB, MDB1, onto Cluster1. The MDB will listen to Destination1. In order to allow MDB1 instances on all cluster members to get messages from Destination1, the administrator should:

A. enable the option Always activate MDBs in all servers on MDB1s activation specification
B. set the option MDB connections to Parallel on Destination1s MDB properties
C. disable the option prefer local on MDB1 when installing the application
D. set the option Connection proximity to Bus on Bus1s activation specification defaults

Answer: A
Question: 44
A cluster, Cluster1, contains application servers Server1 and Server2. Cluster1 is configured as a member of service integration bus (SIBus) Bus1 using the High availability messaging engine policy. A messaging engine (ME) for Bus1 starts up on Server1, then Server1 crashes. An ME for Bus1 will:
A. already be running on Server2. When Server1 recovers, an ME for Bus1 will start on Server1.
B. start on Server2. When Server1 recovers, a second ME for Bus1 will start on Server1.
C. start on Server2 but fail back to Server1 after Server1 has recovered.
D. start on Server2 and continue running on Server2 even after Server1 has recovered.

Answer: D
Question: 45
An administrator has created a cluster, C1, and configured memory-to-memory HTTP session replication. How can the administrator best ensure that every HTTP session is replicated on all members of the cluster?
A. In the Replication domain settings for the C1 replication domain, set Number of replicas to entire domain
B. In the Replication domain settings for the C1 replication domain, set Number of replicas to 0
C. In the Memory-to-memory replication settings for each member of C1, set Number of replicas to entire domain
D. In the Memory-to-memory replication settings for each member of C1, check Replicate to all members

Answer: A
Question: 46
A J2EE application maintains information in the HTTP session in memory. This information can be recreated, but there is a performance penalty to restore state if a user session fails over to a different cluster member. Which of the following features maximizes the use of information already stored in a server’s session?
A. Database persistence
B. Session affinity in Web server plugin
C. Memory-to-memory replication in Both Mode
D. Memory-to-memory replication in Server Mode

Answer: B
Question: 47
A system administrator has successfully installed WebSphere Application Server V7.0 and has run the Installation Verification Tool (IVT) with a success message. Which additional step can be taken to further verify the installation?
A. Check to see if the InstallShield application will run again.
B. Check to see if the installation directory specified exists in the file system.

C. Use a browser to access the launch page of the IBM HTTP Server.
D. Use a browser to access the administrative console and log in successfully.

Answer: D
Question: 48
An administrator wishes to control an Apache Web server on a remote host via the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment administrative console. What must be done to accomplish this?
A. Configure a web server definition in the administrative console.
B. Configure the Apache administrative process on the remote node.
C. Configure an unmanaged node definition in the administrative console.
D. Configure a managed node on the remote host.

Answer: A, D
Question: 49
A cluster, Cluster1, contains two servers, Server1 and Server2. Server1 has a weight of 20 and Server2 has a weight of 4. A single web server is used to route HTTP requests to Cluster1. The web server is started and receives 4 HTTP requests for an application deployed on Cluster1. If the requests are all part of the same HTTP session, and the first request is routed to Server2, how many equests are routed to Server1?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: A
Question: 50
What does backupConfig back up?
A. Log files
B. Profile configuration
C. WebSphere binaries
D. First failure data capture (FFDC) directory
Answer: B
Question: 51
Where can an administrator find binding information for an application?
A. In the IBM extension file
B. In the activation specification
C. In the deployment descriptors
D. Executing the wsadmin command AdminApp.viewBindings (-ApplicationName)
Answer: C
Question: 52
Which of the following statements best describes the type of data collected by request metrics?
A. Monitors health indicators such as CPU usage

B. Provides data for all transactions, without correlation
C. Provides data with respect to pools, queues, and system data
D. Tracks individual transactions, recording the processing time for each component

Answer: D
Question: 53
Which of the following actions would enable the collection of performance data for an application server, given the Performance monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) is not enabled?
A. Using wsadmin, invoke the enablePMICollection operation on the PerfMBean.
B. Using wsadmin, invoke the setInstrumentationLevel operation on the PerfMBean.
C. In the administrative console, on the Performance tab for the server, select the Enable Performance onitoring Infrastructure (PMI) checkbox.
D. In the administrative console, on the Configuration tab for the server, click Performance Monitoring nfrastructure (PMI) under Performance, and then select the Set instrumentation level heckbox.

Answer: B
Question: 54
An application server has runtime provisioning enabled. What is the benefit f it? It:
A. allows shared class cache for runtime classes.
B. reduces server start time and memory footprint.
C. pre-loads all Enterprise Java Beans for the application.
D. enables light-weight runtime configuration service to reduce memory compaction frequency.

Answer: B
Question: 55
An application has poor performance. On examining verbose GC nformation the administrator notices that 70KB objects frequently cannot be allocated due to heap ragmentation, requiring ime-consuming heap compaction. Which of the following is likely to improve performance?
A. Configure more operating system paging space.
B. Increase the size of the large object area (LOA).
C. Increase the size of the thread local heap (TLH).
D. Increase the size of the native heap.
E. Select the Xnocompaction option.

Answer: B
Question: 56
An application spends 90% of its time in a complex servlet and the rest 10%) of time in a short JDBC query. On average, only 10% of the servlets are using database onnections at any time. The pplication starts to perform poorly after a new batch of users are introduced to the system. What easures should the administrator recommend to determine the root cause of the problem?
A. Install Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) as IBM Support Assistant (ISA) add-on.
B. View advice messages in Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) by clicking the Advisor link.
C. Turn on Performance and Diagnostic Advisor in IBM Support Assistant (ISA) as a collector.
D. Install Tivoli Composite Application Manager (ITCAM) as IBM Support Assistant (ISA) add-on.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 191
Which statement is true about the default script field when adding an application?
A. When a caller does not enter a choice in a Menu step, it will execute the default script.
B. Any problems running the configured script will cause the default script to be executed.
C. When the caller enters a digit in the Menu steps that is not defined, the default script will be executed.
D. When the caller enters a digit that is not checked in the filter of the Get Digit String step, the default script will be executed.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
QUESTION 192
Presence integration is a cisco unified CC feature available in which of these packages?
A. premium, enhanced, and standard
B. premium only
C. premium with highavailablility only
D. premium and enhanced

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
Which step would you use to get information about the number of contacts currently in queue?
A. get contact info
B. get session info
C. get call contact info
D. get reporting statisctics
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
The Cisco CRS Server must be configured to communicate and interoperate with Cisco Call Manager. Which two must be configered on the Cisco CRS Server? (Choose two)
A. Repository Manager to load applications
B. JTAPI subsystem with the CTI port group
C. Database subsystem communication with LDAP directory.
D. JTAPI subsystem with the user created in Cisco Call Manager.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
In the Cisco IP Telephony architecture, what is the purpose of the Cisco Call Manager?
A. Connects the enterprise IP Telephone network to the PSTN.
B. Stores configurationinfromartion and application scripts for CRS.
C. Provides basic services for Voice over IP, and manages gateways.
D. Allows designers to create, modify and debug CRS Application scripts.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Which two components are installed from the CRS Installer CD? (Choose two)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
A. Serviceability
B. Language Pack
C. MS SQL Server
D. iPlanet WEb Server
E. Windows 2000 Server OS

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Once an email is sent by the CRS application, the call is kept wait until …
A. …a transaction timeout occurs
B. …aconfig wait time is reach
C. …the message is accept by the email server
D. … thereceptian acknowledges receipt of the email

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Which step must be executed before a DB Get step?
A. Accept
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
What two things happen when the CRS Publisher Database on an HRDB expansion server fails?
A. All callprocessign immediately begins using the CRS Subscriber Database.
B. Calls in the queue are dropped
C. Agent calls are dropped.
D. CRSconffiguration changes are blocked until the CRS Publisher Database is restored and syncronized with the CRS Subscriber Database

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
You have just successfully added a JTAPI trigger in CRS Administration. Which two items are automatically configured on your CallManager? (Choose two)
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
A. CTI dialogue control port
B. CTI Route Point
C. Dialogue group
D. CTI Route Point association with JTAPI User

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 201
The Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not answer. Which branch of the step is executed?
A. Busy
B. Invalid
C. Successful
D. Unsuccessful

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
A customer with IPCC Express Standard reports that a script using the Database steps is not working. What is the most likely root cause?
A. The script probably has an error in the DSN configuration.
B. IPCC Express Standard is not licensed for Database steps.
C. The script probably has an error in the query string.
D. There is probably an interoperability problem between IPCC Express and the database.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 203
Which branch of the step is performed when the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device not existing in the CallManager?
A. Successfull
B. Invalid
C. Unsuccessful
D. Busy

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 204
What happens when the CRS Engine fails in a High-Availability CRS deployment
A. All activities fail over without any loss of data or dropping any calls. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
B. All current agent calls are dropped.
C. All callers on active CTI ports are dropped.
D. The standby CRS Engine starts, processing new calls immediately.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 205
Which step must be executed before an email can be sent?
A. Send Email
B. Attach Email
C. Create Email
D. Delete Email

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 206
What CRS Server configuration enabled the CRS Server to fail over to a secondary Call Manager when the primary Call Manager fails?
A. The LDAP Directory must have a secondary profile configured
B. No special configuration is required. Call Manager maintains the failover.
C. There must be a second JTAPI user configured with an alternative range of CTI ports.
D. the CRS Server’s JTAPI Provider must be configured with secondary Call Manager’s IP addressfollowinf the primaries.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 207
If DB Get is done after a DB read that return 0 row, which branch of the DB Get step will be executed?
A. no data
B. time out
C. SQL error
D. Successful

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 208
In the Cisco IP Telephone architecture, what is the purpose of the Gateway?
A. Connects the enterprise IP Telephony network to the PSTN.
B. Stores configurationinfromation and application scripts for the CRS. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 642-165
C. Provides basic servicesfro Voice over IP and manages gateways.
D. Allows designers to create, modify, and debug CRS Application scripts.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 209
When will a skills-based CSQ that requires a skill competency of four (4) select an IPCC Express agent?
A. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of nine (9) in another skill defined in CRS
B. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of one (1) in the required skill for the CSQ
C. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of seven (7) in the required skill for the CSQ
D. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of three (3) in the required skill defined in CRS

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 210
Which three of the following are valid CRS deployment scenarios? (Choose three.)
A. High Availability CRS Engines running on hardware from different server classes
B. High Availability CRS Engines running on similar hardware from the same server class but from different vendors
C. High Availability CRS Engines and four simplex VoIP Monitoring Servers
D. CCM co-resident deployment on an MCS 7815

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 217
What are the 3 main components of the SmartEvent Software Blade?
1.
Correlation Unit

2.
Correlation Client

3.
Correlation Server

4.
Analyzer Server

5.
Analyzer Client

6.
Analyzer Unit
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 4, 5, 6
C. 1, 4, 5
D. 1, 3, 4

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 218
You are reviewing computer information collected in ClientInfo. You can NOT:
A. Enter new credential for accessing the computer information.
B. Save the information in the active tab to an .exe file.
C. Copy the contents of the selected cells.
D. Run Google.com search using the contents of the selected cell.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 219
What is the SmartEvent Analyzer’s function?
A. Assign severity levels to events.
B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 220
What is the SmartEvent Client’s function?
A. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy.
B. Generate a threat analysis report from the Reporter database.
C. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database.
D. Assign severity levels to events.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 221
A tracked SmartEvent Candidate in a Candidate Pool becomes an Event.
What does NOT happen in the Analyzer Server?
A. SmartEvent provides the beginning and end time of the Event.
B. The Correlation Unit keeps adding matching logs to the Event.
C. The Event is kept open, but condenses many instances into one Event.
D. SmartEvent stops tracking logs related to the Candidate.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 222
What is the benefit to running SmartEvent in Learning Mode?
A. There is no SmartEvent Learning Mode
B. To run SmartEvent with preloaded sample data in a test environment
C. To run SmartEvent, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purposes
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 223
For best performance in Event Correlation, you should use:
A. IP address ranges
B. Large groups
C. Nothing slows down Event Correlation
D. Many objects

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 224
_______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server.
A. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
B. SmartReporter
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartReporter Database

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 225
_____________ generates a SmartEvent Report from its SQL database.
A. SmartEvent Client
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartReporter
D. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 226
Which SmartReporter report type is generated from the SmartView Monitor history file?
A. Custom
B. Express
C. Traditional
D. Standard

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 227
You have selected the event Port Scan from Internal Network in SmartEvent, to detect an event when 30
port scans have occurred within 60 seconds.
You also want to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other.

How would you accomplish this?
A. Define the two port-scan detections as an exception.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub-event.
D. You cannot set SmartEvent to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 228
When do modifications to the Event Policy take effect?
A. When saved on the Correlation Units, and pushed as a policy.
B. As soon as the Policy Tab window is closed.
C. When saved on the SmartEvent Client, and installed on the SmartEvent Server.
D. When saved on the SmartEvent Server and installed to the Correlation Units.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 229
To clean the system of all events, you should delete the files in which folder(s)?
A. $RTDIR/distrib and $RTDIR/events_db
B. $RTDIR/events_db
C. $FWDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events
D. $FWDIR/distrib

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 230
What SmartConsole application allows you to change the Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartReporter
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartEvent Server

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 231
Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports in SmartReporter?
A. In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters
B. In SmartReporter, under Express > Network Activity
C. In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the R75 Security Gateway object
D. In SmartReporter, under Standard > Custom

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 232
SmartReporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the following examples, EXCEPT:
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
C. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
D. Tracking attempted port scans.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 233
If Jack was concerned about the number of log entries he would receive in the SmartReporter system, which policy would he need to modify?
A. Consolidation Policy
B. Log Consolidator Policy
C. Log Sequence Policy
D. Report Policy

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 234
Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed.
Which actions should be taken to achieve that?
(i)
Use same hard driver for database directory, log files and temporary directory

(ii)
Use Consolidation Rules
(iii) Limit logging to blocked traffic only
(iv)
Using Multiple Database Tables

A.
(i) and (ii)

B.
(ii) and (iv)

C.
(i), (ii) and (iv)

D.
(i), (iii) and (iv)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 235
To help organize events, SmartReporter uses filtered queries.
Which of the following is NOT an SmartEvent event property you can query?

A. Event: Critical, Suspect, False Alarm
B. TimE. Last Hour, Last Day, Last Week
C. StatE. Open, Closed, False Alarm
D. TypE. Scans, Denial of Service, Unauthorized Entry

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 236
How could you compare the Fingerprint shown to the Fingerprint on the server?

A. Run cpconfig, select the Certificate’s Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint
B. Run cpconfig, select the GUI Clients option and view the fingerprint
C. Run cpconfig, select the Certificate Authority option and view the fingerprint
D. Run sysconfig, select the Server Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 237
Which file defines the fields for each object used in the file objects.C (color, num/string, default value…)?
A. $FWDIR/conf/classes.C
B. $FWDIR/conf/scheam.C
C. $FWDIR/conf/table.C
D. $FWDIR/conf/fields.C

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 238
Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 239
You use the snapshot feature to store your Connectra SSL VPN configuration. What do you expect to find?
A. Nothing; snapshot is not supported in Connectra SSL VPN.
B. The management configuration of the current product, on a management or stand-alone machine
C. A complete image of the local file system
D. Specified directories of the local file system.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 240
When running DLP Wizard for the first time, which of the following is a mandatory configuration?
A. Mail Server
B. E-mail Domain in My Organization
C. DLP Portal URL
D. Active Directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 241
When using Connectra with Endpoint Security Policies, what option is not available when configuring DAT enforcement?
A. Maximum DAT file version
B. Maximum DAT file age
C. Minimum DAT file version
D. Oldest DAT file timestamp

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 242
Which of the following statements is FALSE about the DLP Software Blade and Active Directory (AD) or LDAP?
A. When a user authenticates in the DLP Portal to view all his unhandled incidents, the portal authenticates the user using only AD/LDAP.
B. Check Point UserCheck client authentication is based on AD.
C. For SMTP traffic, each recipient e-mail address is translated using AD/LDAP to a user name and group that is checked vs. the destination column of the DLP rule base.
D. For SMTP traffic, the sender e-mail address is translated using AD/LDAP to a user name and group
that is checked vs. the source column of the DLP rule base. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 243
You are running R71 and using the new IPS Software Blade.
To maintain the highest level of security, you are doing IPS updates regularly.

What kind of problems can be caused by the automatic updates?

A. None; updates will not add any new security checks causing problematic behaviour on the systems.
B. None, all new updates will be implemented in Detect only mode to avoid unwanted traffic interruptions. They have to be activated manually later.
C. None, all the checks will be activated from the beginning, but will only detect attacks and not disturb any non-malicious traffic in the network.
D. All checks will be activated from the beginning and might cause unwanted traffic outage due to false positives of the new checks and non-RFC compliant self-written applications.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 244
Which of the following deployment scenarios CANNOT be managed by Check Point QoS?
A. Two lines connected to a single router, and the router is connected directly to the Gateway
B. Two lines connected to separate routers, and each router is connected to separate interfaces on the Gateway
C. One LAN line and one DMZ line connected to separate Gateway interfaces
D. Two lines connected directly to the Gateway through a hub

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 245
Which technology is responsible for assembling packet streams and passing ordered data to the protocol parsers in IPS?
A. Pattern Matcher
B. Content Management Infrastructure
C. Accelerated INSPECT
D. Packet Streaming Layer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 246
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the
Default Rule with a weight of 10.
The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384 Kbps, and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps.
The per-connection guarantee is for four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the
Action properties.

If traffic is passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of the following statements is
TRUE?

A. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.
B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.
C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule.
D. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 247
How is SmartWorkflow enabled?
A. In SmartView Monitor, click on SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow. The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode. Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes.
B. In SmartView Tracker, click on SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow. The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes.
C. In SmartDashboard, click on SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode. Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes.
D. In SmartEvent, click on SmartWorkflow/ Enable SmartWorkflow. The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode. Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 248
What could the following regular expression be used for in a DLP rule?
\$(*, .
Select the best answer
A. As a Data Type to prevent programmers from leaking code outside the company
B. As a compound data type representation.
C. As a Data Type to prevent employees from sending an email that contains a complete price-list of nine products.
D. As a Data Type to prevent the Finance Department from leaking salary information to employees
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 249
Exhibit: UserA is able to create a SmartLSM Security Cluster Profile , you must select the correct justification.

A. False. The user must have at least Read permissions for the SmartLSM Gateways Database
B. True Only Object Database Read/Write permissions are required to create SmartLSM Profiles
C. False The user must have Read/Write permissions for the SmartLSM Gateways Database.
D. Not enough information to determine. You must know the user’s Provisioning permissions to determine whether they are able to create a SmartLSM Security Cluster Profile

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 250
Which Check Point QoS feature is used to dynamically allocate relative portions of available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Low Latency Queuing
D. Differentiated Services

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 251
Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic Bits Protection is set to inactive.
She wants to set the Microsoft Visual Basic Kill Bits Protection and all other Low Performance Impact
Protections to Prevent.
She asks her manager for approval and stated she can turn theses on.
But he wants Laura to make sure no high Performance Impacted Protections are turned on while changing
this setting.
Using the out below, how would Laura change the Default_Protection on Performance Impact Protections classified as low from inactive to prevent until meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and uncheck Do not activate protections with performance impact to medium or above
B. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to low or above
C. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to medium or above
D. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and uncheck Do not activate protections with performance impact to high or above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 252
Refer to the to the network topology below.

You have IPS software Blades active on security Gateways sglondon, sgla, and sgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York DMZ.
How is this possible?
A. All of these options are possible.
B. Attacker may have used a touch of evasion techniques like using escape sequences instead of clear text commands. It is also possible that there are entry points not shown in the network layout, like rouge access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their networks without any noticing
D. An IPS may combine different technologies, but is dependent on regular signature updates and well-turned automatically algorithms. Even if this is accomplished, no technology can offer protection.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 253
How is change approved for implementation in SmartWorkflow?
A. The change is submitted for approval and is automatically installed by the approver once Approve is clicked
B. The change is submitted for approval and is automatically installed by the original submitter the next time he logs in after approval of the 3nge
C. The change is submitted for approval and is manually installed by the original submitter the next time he logs in after approval of the change.
D. The change is submitted for approval and is manually installed by the approver once Approve is clicked
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 254
Provisioning Profiles can NOT be applied to:
A. UTM-1 EDGE Appliances
B. UTM-1 Appliances
C. IP Appliances
D. Power-1 Appliances

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 255
One profile in SmartProvisioning can update:
A. Potentially hundreds and thousands of gateways.
B. Only Clustered Gateways.
C. Specific gateways.
D. Profiles are not used for updating, just reporting.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 256
Check Point recommends deploying SSL VPN:
A. In parallel to the firewall
B. In a DMZ
C. In front of the firewall with a LAN connection
D. On the Primary cluster member

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 257
What are the SmartProvisioning Provisioning Profile indicators?
A. OK, Needs Attention, Uninitialized, Unknown
B. OK, Needs Attention, Agent is in local mode, Uninitialized, Unknown
C. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
D. OK, In Use. Out of date, not used

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 258
SmartWorkflow has been enabled with the following configuration:
If a security administrator opens a new session and after making changes to policy, submits the session for approval will be displayed as:
A. Approved
B. In progress
C. Not Approved
D. Awaiting Approval

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 259
In Company XYZ, the DLP Administrator defined a new Keywords Data Type that contains a list of secret
project names; i.e., Ayalon, Yarkon, Yarden.
The threshold is set to At least 2 keywords or phrases.

Based on this information, which of the following scenarios will be a match to the Rule Base?

A. A PDF file that contains the following text Yarkon1 can be the code name for the new product. Yardens list of protected sites
B. An MS Excel file that contains the following text Mort resources for Yarkon project.. Are you certain this is about Yarden?
C. A word file that contains the following text will match:
Ayalon
ayalon
AYALON

D. A password protected MS Excel file that contains the following text Ayalon Yarkon Yarden

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 260
Which Name Resolution protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. DNS, hosts, Imhosts, WINS
B. DNS, hosts, Imhosts
C. DNS, hosts, WINS
D. DNS, hosts

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 261
Which Check Point QoS feature marks the ToS byte in the IP header?
A. Differentiated Services
B. Guarantees
C. Weighted Fair Queuing
D. Low Latency Queuing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 262
How does ClusterXL Unicast mode handle new traffic?
A. All members receive all packets. The Security Management Server decides which member will process the packets. Other members delete the packets from memory.
B. The pivot machine receives and inspects all new packets then synchronizes the connections with other members
C. The pivot machine receives all the packets and runs an algorithm to determine which member should process the packets
D. All cluster members’ process all packets and members synchronize with each other. The pivot is responsible for the master sync catalog

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 263
Which of the following explains Role Segregation?
A. Administrators have different abilities than managers within SmartWorkflow.
B. Different tasks within SmartDashboard are divided according to firewall administrator permissions.
C. Changes made by an administrator in a SmartWorkflow session must have managerial approval prior to commitment.
D. SmartWorkflow can be configured so that managers can only view their assigned sessions

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 264
Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the performance of Check Point QoS?
A. Put the most frequently used rules at the bottom of the QoS Rule Base.
B. Define Check Point QoS only on the external interfaces of the QoS Module.
C. Turn per rule limits into per connection limits
D. Turn per rule guarantees into per connection guarantees.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 265
Where is the encryption domain for a SmartLSM Security Gateway configured in R71?
A. Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway object in the SmartDashboard GUI
B. Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway profile in the SmartProvisioning GUI
C. Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway object in the SmartProvisioning GUI
D. Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway profile in the SmartDashboard GUI

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 266
John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator.
If he suggests a change in the firewall configuration, he must submit his proposal to David, a security
manager.
One day David is out of the office and john submits his proposal to peter.
Surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal because the system does not permit him to do so?

Both David and Peter have accounts as administrators in the Security Management server and both have the Read/Write ALL permission.
What is the reason for this difference?
A. There were some Hardware/Software issues at Security Management server on the first day.
B. Peter was no logged on to system for a longer time
C. The attribute Manage Administrator was not assigned to Peter
D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/Write permission were assigned to David only.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 267
What is NOT true about Management Portal?
A. Choosing Accept control connections in Implied Rules includes Management Portal access
B. Management Portal requires a license
C. Default Port for Management Portal access is 4433
D. Management Portal could be reconfigured for using HTTP instead of HTTPS

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 268
Management Portal should be installed on:
(i)
Management Server

(ii)
Security Gateway
(iii)
Dedicated Server

A.
All are possible solutions

B.
(ii) only

C.
(iii) only

D.
(i) or (ii) only

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 269
What port is used for Administrator access for your SSL VPN?
B. 4433
C. 4434
D. 443

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 270
What is the command to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 SmartCenter Server to VPN-1 NGX using a CD?
A. cd patch add
B. fwm upgrade_tool
C. cppkg add
D. patch add
E. patch add cd

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 302
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 114 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports in SmartReporter?
A. In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters
B. In SmartReporter, under Express > Network Activity
C. In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the R75 Security Gateway object
D. In SmartReporter, under Standard > Custom

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 303
In a UNIX environment, SmartReporter Data Base settings could be modified in:
A. $FWDIR/Eventia/conf/ini.C
B. $RTDIR/Database/conf/my.cnf
C. $CPDIR/Database/conf/conf.C
D. $ERDIR/conf/my.cnf

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 304
In a Windows environment, SmartReporter Data Base settings could be modified in:
A. %RTDIR%\Database\conf\my.ini
B. $ERDIR/conf/my.cnf
C. $CPDIR/Database/conf/conf.C
D. $FWDIR/Eventia/conf/ini.C

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 305
Which specific R75 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 115 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartReporter
D. SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 306
SmartReporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the following examples, EXCEPT:
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
C. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
D. Tracking attempted port scans.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 307
What is the best tool to produce a report which represents historical system information?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. Smartview Monitor
C. SmartReporter-Standard Reports
D. SmartReporter-Express Reports

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 308
If Jack was concerned about the number of log entries he would receive in the SmartReporter system, which policy would he need to modify?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 116 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. Consolidation Policy
B. Log Consolidator Policy
C. Log Sequence Policy
D. Report Policy

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 309
Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed.
Which actions should be taken to achieve that?
(i)
Use same hard driver for database directory, log files and temporary directory

(ii)
Use Consolidation Rules
(iii) Limit logging to blocked traffic only
(iv)
Using Multiple Database Tables

A.
(i) and (ii)

B.
(ii) and (iv)

C.
(i), (ii) and (iv)

D.
(i), (iii) and (iv)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 310
To help organize events, SmartReporter uses filtered queries. Which of the following is NOT an SmartEvent event property you can query?
A. Event: Critical, Suspect, False Alarm
B. TimE. Last Hour, Last Day, Last Week
C. StatE. Open, Closed, False Alarm
D. TypE. Scans, Denial of Service, Unauthorized Entry

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 311
When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the first step is to back up the files on the original server. Which of the following commands should you run to back up the SmartEvent data base?
A. migrate export
B. snapshot
C. backup
D. eva_db_backup

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 312
When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the last step is to save the files on the new server. Which of the following commands should you run to save the SmartEvent data base files on the new server?
A. cp
B. migrate import
C. eva_db_restore
D. restore

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 313
How could you compare the Fingerprint shown to the Fingerprint on the server?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 118 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

A. Run cpconfig, select the Certificate’s Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint
B. Run cpconfig, select the GUI Clients option and view the fingerprint
C. Run cpconfig, select the Certificate Authority option and view the fingerprint
D. Run sysconfig, select the Server Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 314
Which file defines the fields for each object used in the file objects.C (color, num/string, default value…)?
A. $FWDIR/conf/classes.C
B. $FWDIR/conf/scheam.C
C. $FWDIR/conf/table.C
D. $FWDIR/conf/fields.C

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 315
Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 316
When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server’s node-object properties. You then do not need to list all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 317
Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 318
Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 319
Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 320
What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 321
Based on the following information, which of the statements below is FALSE? A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions: Data Type =Password Protected File Source=My Organization Destination=Outside My Organization Protocol=Any Action=Ask User Exception: Data Type=Any, Source=Research and Development (R&D) Destination=Pratner1.com Protocol=Any All other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines.
A. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with a password protected PDF file as an attachment to xyz@partner1 .com, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
B. When a user from Finance sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to. He will be prompted by UserCheck.
C. Another rule is added: Source = R&D, Destination = partner1.com, Protocol = Any, Action = Inform. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
D. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to , he will NOT be prompted by UserCheck.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 322
You use the snapshot feature to store your Connectra SSL VPN configuration. What do you
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 122 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam expect to find?
A. Nothing; snapshot is not supported in Connectra SSL VPN.
B. The management configuration of the current product, on a management or stand-alone machine
C. A complete image of the local file system
D. Specified directories of the local file system.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 323
When running DLP Wizard for the first time, which of the following is a mandatory configuration?
A. Mail Server
B. E-mail Domain in My Organization
C. DLP Portal URL
D. Active Directory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 324
When using Connectra with Endpoint Security Policies, what option is not available when configuring DAT enforcement?
A. Maximum DAT file version
B. Maximum DAT file age
C. Minimum DAT file version
D. Oldest DAT file timestamp

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 325
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 123 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Which specific R71 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open?
A. SmartReporter
B. SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Status
D. SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 326
What is not available for Express Reports compared to Standard Reports?
A. Filter
B. Period
C. Content
D. Schedule

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 327
Based on the following information, which of the statements below is TRUE?
A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions:
Data Type = Large file (> 500KB)
Source = My Organization
Destination = Free Web Mails
Protocol = Any
Action = Ask User
All other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines.
A. When a user uploads a 600 KB file to his Yahoo account via Web Mail (via his browser), he will “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 124 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam be prompted by UserCheck
B. When a user sends an e-mail with a small body and 5 attachments, each of 200 KB to, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
C. When a user sends an e-mail with an attachment larger than 500 KB to, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
D. When a user sends an e-mail with an attachment larger than 500KB to, he will be prompted by UserCheck.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 328
Which of the following statements is FALSE about the DLP Software Blade and Active Directory (AD) or LDAP?
A. When a user authenticates in the DLP Portal to view all his unhandled incidents, the portal authenticates the user using only AD/LDAP.
B. Check Point UserCheck client authentication is based on AD.
C. For SMTP traffic, each recipient e-mail address is translated using AD/LDAP to a user name and group that is checked vs. the destination column of the DLP rule base.
D. For SMTP traffic, the sender e-mail address is translated using AD/LDAP to a user name and group that is checked vs. the source column of the DLP rule base.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 329
You are running R71 and using the new IPS Software Blade. To maintain the highest level of security, you are doing IPS updates regularly. What kind of problems can be caused by the automatic updates?
A. None; updates will not add any new security checks causing problematic behaviour on the systems.
B. None, all new updates will be implemented in Detect only mode to avoid unwanted traffic interruptions. They have to be activated manually later.
C. None, all the checks will be activated from the beginning, but will only detect attacks and not disturb any non-malicious traffic in the network.
D. All checks will be activated from the beginning and might cause unwanted traffic outage due to false positives of the new checks and non-RFC compliant self-written applications. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 125 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 330
Which of the following deployment scenarios CANNOT be managed by Check Point QoS?
A. Two lines connected to a single router, and the router is connected directly to the Gateway
B. Two lines connected to separate routers, and each router is connected to separate interfaces on the Gateway
C. One LAN line and one DMZ line connected to separate Gateway interfaces
D. Two lines connected directly to the Gateway through a hub

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 331
Given the following protection detailed and the enforcing gateways list, is the Tool many DNS queries with the RD flag set protection enabled on the Gateway R71?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 126 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

Please choose the answer with the correct justification.
A. yes because it is set to prevent on the Default_Protrction, which R71 gateway has applied.
B. No because the protection is only supported on IPS-1 Sensor
C. No enough information to determine one way or other
D. No, because the Too many DNS queries with the flag set protection is not a valid protection in R71

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 332
Which technology is responsible for assembling packet streams and passing ordered data to the protocol parsers in IPS?
A. Pattern Matcher
B. Content Management Infrastructure
C. Accelerated INSPECT
D. Packet Streaming Layer

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 333
You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384 Kbps. and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action properties. If traffic is passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.
B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.
C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule.
D. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 334
Which of the following is the default port for Management Portal?
A. 4434
B. 443
C. 444
D. 4433

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 335
How is SmartWorkflow enabled?
A. In SmartView Monitor, click on SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow. The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode. Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes.
B. In SmartView Tracker, click on SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow. The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 128 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
C. In SmartDashboard, click on SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode. Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes.
D. In SmartEvent, click on SmartWorkflow/ Enable SmartWorkflow. The Enabling SmartWorkflow wizard launches and prompts for SmartWorkflow Operation Mode. Once a mode is selected, the wizard finishes.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 336
What could the following regular expression be used for in a DLP rule?
\$(*, .
Select the best answer
A. As a Data Type to prevent programmers from leaking code outside the company
B. As a compound data type representation.
C. As a Data Type to prevent employees from sending an email that contains a complete price-list of nine products.
D. As a Data Type to prevent the Finance Department from leaking salary information to employees
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 337
Exhibit:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 129 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam UserA is able to create a SmartLSM Security Cluster Profile , you must select the correct justification.

A. False. The user must have at least Read permissions for the SmartLSM Gateways Database
B. True Only Object Database Read/Write permissions are required to create SmartLSM Profiles
C. False The user must have Read/Write permissions for the SmartLSM Gateways Database.
D. Not enough information to determine. You must know the user’s Provisioning permissions to determine whether they are able to create a SmartLSM Security Cluster Profile

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 338
Which Check Point QoS feature is used to dynamically allocate relative portions of available
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 130 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Low Latency Queuing
D. Differentiated Services

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 339
John is the MegaCorp Security Administrator, and is using Check Point R71. Malcolm is the Security Administrator of a partner company and is using a different vendor’s product and both have to build a VPN tunnel between their companies. Both are using clusters with Load Sharing for their firewalls and John is using ClusterXL as a Check Point clustering solution. While trying to establish the VPN, they are constantly noticing problems and the tunnel is not stable and then Malcolm notices that there seems to be 2 SPIs with the same IP from the Check Point site. How can they solve this problem and stabilize the tunnel?
A. This can be solved by running the command Sticky VPN on the Check Point CLI. This keeps the VPN Sticky to one member and the problem is resolved.
B. This is surely a problem in the ISPs network and not related to the VPN configuration.
C. This can be solved when using clusters; they have to use single firewalls.
D. This can easily be solved by using the Sticky decision function in ClusterXL.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 340
Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic Bits Protection is set to inactive. She wants to set the Microsoft Visual Basic Kill Bits Protection and all other Low Performance Impact Protections to Prevent. She asks her manager for approval and stated she can turn theses on. But he wants Laura to make sure no high Performance Impacted Protections are turned on while changing this setting.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 131 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam Using the out below, how would Laura change the Default_Protection on Performance Impact Protections classified as low from inactive to prevent until meeting her other criteria?

A. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and uncheck Do not activate protections with performance impact to medium or above
B. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to low or above
C. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to medium or above
D. Go to Profiles / Default_Protection and uncheck Do not activate protections with performance impact to high or above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 341
The following graphic illustrates which command being issued on SecurePlatform?
A. The administrator will have to open the old session and make the changes, no note is added automatically, however, the manager adds his notes stating the changes required. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 132 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
B. The same session is modified with a note automatically added stating under repair.
C. The old status is removed and a new session is created with the same name, but with a note stating new session after repair.
D. A new session is created by the name Repairing Session <old id> and the old session status is updated to Repaired with a note stating Repaired by Session < new id>

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 342
Refer to the to the network topology below.

You have IPS software Blades active on security Gateways sglondon, sgla, and sgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York DMZ. How is this possible?
A. All of these options are possible.
B. Attacker may have used a touch of evasion techniques like using escape sequences instead of clear text commands. It is also possible that there are entry points not shown in the network layout, like rouge access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their networks without any noticing
D. An IPS may combine different technologies, but is dependent on regular signature updates and well-turned automatically algorithms. Even if this is accomplished, no technology can offer 100% “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 133 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam protection.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 343
How is change approved for implementation in SmartWorkflow?
A. The change is submitted for approval and is automatically installed by the approver once Approve is clicked
B. The change is submitted for approval and is automatically installed by the original submitter the next time he logs in after approval of the 3nge
C. The change is submitted for approval and is manually installed by the original submitter the next time he logs in after approval of the change.
D. The change is submitted for approval and is manually installed by the approver once Approve is clicked

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 344
Provisioning Profiles can NOT be applied to:
A. UTM-1 EDGE Appliances
B. UTM-1 Appliances
C. IP Appliances
D. Power-1 Appliances

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 345
What is the lowest possible version a Security Gateway may be running in order to use it as an LSM enabled Gateway?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 134 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. NG-AI R55 HFAJ7
B. NGX R60
C. NGXR65HFA_50
D. NGX R71

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 346
One profile in SmartProvisioning can update:
A. Potentially hundreds and thousands of gateways.
B. Only Clustered Gateways.
C. Specific gateways.
D. Profiles are not used for updating, just reporting.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 347
Check Point recommends deploying SSL VPN:
A. In parallel to the firewall
B. In a DMZ
C. In front of the firewall with a LAN connection
D. On the Primary cluster member

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 348
What are the SmartProvisioning Provisioning Profile indicators?
A. OK, Needs Attention, Uninitialized, Unknown
B. OK, Needs Attention, Agent is in local mode, Uninitialized, Unknown “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” -www.actualtests.com 135 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
C. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
D. OK, In Use. Out of date, not used

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 349
Which of the following can NOT be modified by editing the cp_httpd_admin.conf file?
A. Toggling HTTP or HTTPS protocol use
B. The web server port
C. Modifying Web server certificate attributes
D. Administrative Access Level

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 350
SmartWorkflow has been enabled with the following configuration:
If a security administrator opens a new session and after making changes to policy, submits the session for approval will be displayed as:
A. Approved
B. In progress
C. Not Approved
D. Awaiting Approval

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 41
Data execution prevention is a feature in most operating systems intended to protect against which type of attack?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Header manipulation
D. SQL injection

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42
Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?
A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Privilege creep among long-term employees can be mitigated by which of the following procedures?
A. User permission reviews
B. Mandatory vacations
C. Separation of duties
D. Job function rotation

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
In which of the following scenarios is PKI LEAST hardened?
A. The CRL is posted to a publicly accessible location.
B. The recorded time offsets are developed with symmetric keys.
C. A malicious CA certificate is loaded on all the clients.
D. All public keys are accessed by an unauthorized user.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application’s security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
A security administrator has just finished creating a hot site for the company. This implementation relates to which of the following concepts?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Succession planning
D. Integrity

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
In the initial stages of an incident response, Matt, the security administrator, was provided the hard drives in question from the incident manager. Which of the following incident response procedures would he need to perform in order to begin the analysis? (Select TWO).
A. Take hashes
B. Begin the chain of custody paperwork
C. Take screen shots
D. Capture the system image
E. Decompile suspicious files

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 49
Which of the following is used to certify intermediate authorities in a large PKI deployment?
A. Root CA
B. Recovery agent
C. Root user
D. Key escrow

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
Which of the following components MUST be trusted by all parties in PKI?
A. Key escrow
B. CA
C. Private key
D. Recovery key

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
Which of the following should Matt, a security administrator, include when encrypting smartphones? (Select TWO).
A. Steganography images
B. Internal memory
C. Master boot records
D. Removable memory cards
E. Public keys

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 52
Which of the following is the below pseudo-code an example of? IF VARIABLE (CONTAINS NUMBERS = TRUE) THEN EXIT
A. Buffer overflow prevention
B. Input validation
C. CSRF prevention
D. Cross-site scripting prevention

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 53
A system administrator is using a packet sniffer to troubleshoot remote authentication. The administrator detects a device trying to communicate to TCP port 49. Which of the following authentication methods is MOST likely being attempted?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos

D. LDAP Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
Which of the following can use RC4 for encryption? (Select TWO).
A. CHAP
B. SSL
C. WEP
D. AES
E. 3DES

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 55
Which of the following defines a business goal for system restoration and acceptable data loss?
A. MTTR
B. MTBF
C. RPO
D. Warm site

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
If Organization A trusts Organization B and Organization B trusts Organization C, then Organization A trusts Organization C. Which of the following PKI concepts is this describing?
A. Transitive trust
B. Public key trust
C. Certificate authority trust
D. Domain level trust

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
Which of the following concepts is BEST described as developing a new chain of command in the event of a contingency?
A. Business continuity planning
B. Continuity of operations
C. Business impact analysis
D. Succession planning

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which of the following allows a company to maintain access to encrypted resources when employee turnover is high?
A. Recovery agent
B. Certificate authority
C. Trust model
D. Key escrow
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Which of the following devices will help prevent a laptop from being removed from a certain location?
A. Device encryption
B. Cable locks
C. GPS tracking
D. Remote data wipes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
Which of the following is the MOST secure protocol to transfer files?
A. FTP
B. FTPS
C. SSH
D. TELNET

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Suspicious traffic without a specific signature was detected. Under further investigation, it was determined that these were false indicators. Which of the following security devices needs to be configured to disable future false alarms?
A. Signature based IPS
B. Signature based IDS
C. Application based IPS
D. Anomaly based IDS

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
A company storing data on a secure server wants to ensure it is legally able to dismiss and prosecute staff who intentionally access the server via Telnet and illegally tamper with customer data. Which of the following administrative controls should be implemented to BEST achieve this?
A. Command shell restrictions
B. Restricted interface
C. Warning banners
D. Session output pipe to /dev/null
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
Which of the following protocols is used to authenticate the client and server’s digital certificate?
A. PEAP
B. DNS
C. TLS
D. ICMP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of the following can be used to mitigate risk if a mobile device is lost?
A. Cable lock
B. Transport encryption
C. Voice encryption
D. Strong passwords

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Which of the following security concepts would Sara, the security administrator, use to mitigate the risk of data loss?
A. Record time offset
B. Clean desk policy
C. Cloud computing
D. Routine log review

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 66
Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
A. Credit card and PIN
B. Username and password
C. Password and PIN
D. Fingerprint and retina scan

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
After Matt, a user, enters his username and password at the login screen of a web enabled portal, the
following appears on his screen:
`Please only use letters and numbers on these fields’ Which of the following is this an example of?

A. Proper error handling
B. Proper input validation
C. Improper input validation
D. Improper error handling

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which of the following should the security administrator implement to limit web traffic based on country of origin? (Select THREE).
A. Spam filter
B. Load balancer
C. Antivirus
D. Proxies
E. Firewall
F. NIDS
G. URL filtering

Correct Answer: DEG
QUESTION 69
Several bins are located throughout a building for secure disposal of sensitive information. Which of the following does this prevent?
A. Dumpster diving
B. War driving
C. Tailgating
D. War chalking

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Matt, a developer, recently attended a workshop on a new application. The developer installs the new application on a production system to test the functionality. Which of the following is MOST likely affected?
A. Application design
B. Application security
C. Initial baseline configuration
D. Management of interfaces

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
Sara, a company’s security officer, often receives reports of unauthorized personnel having access codes to the cipher locks of secure areas in the building. Sara should immediately implement which of the following?
A. Acceptable Use Policy
B. Physical security controls
C. Technical controls
D. Security awareness training

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Mike, a network administrator, has been asked to passively monitor network traffic to the company’s sales websites. Which of the following would be BEST suited for this task?
A. HIDS
B. Firewall
C. NIPS
D. Spam filter

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Mike, a security professional, is tasked with actively verifying the strength of the security controls on a company’s live modem pool. Which of the following activities is MOST appropriate?
A. War dialing
B. War chalking
C. War driving
D. Bluesnarfing

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
Users at a company report that a popular news website keeps taking them to a web page with derogatory content. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Evil twin
B. DNS poisoning
C. Vishing
D. Session hijacking

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
An encrypted message is sent using PKI from Sara, a client, to a customer. Sara claims she never sent the message. Which of the following aspects of PKI BEST ensures the identity of the sender?
A. CRL
B. Non-repudiation
C. Trust models
D. Recovery agents
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 76
Jane, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into a server. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on a specific server?
A. HIPS
B. NIDS
C. HIDS
D. NIPS

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 77
Matt, the IT Manager, wants to create a new network available to virtual servers on the same hypervisor, and does not want this network to be routable to the firewall. How could this BEST be accomplished?
A. Create a VLAN without a default gateway.
B. Remove the network from the routing table.
C. Create a virtual switch.
D. Commission a stand-alone switch.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 78
A security administrator implements access controls based on the security classification of the data and need-to-know information. Which of the following BEST describes this level of access control?
A. Implicit deny
B. Role-based Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Controls
D. Least privilege

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 79
A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security administrator allow on the firewall by default?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22

D. 23 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 80
Which of the following could cause a browser to display the message below? “The security certificate presented by this website was issued for a different website’s address.”
A. The website certificate was issued by a different CA than what the browser recognizes in its trusted CAs.
B. The website is using a wildcard certificate issued for the company’s domain.
C. HTTPS://127.0.01 was used instead of HTTPS://localhost.
D. The website is using an expired self signed certificate.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 81
A company that purchased an HVAC system for the datacenter is MOST concerned with which of the following?
A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Fire suppression

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 82
Which of the following pseudocodes can be used to handle program exceptions?
A. If program detects another instance of itself, then kill program instance.
B. If user enters invalid input, then restart program.
C. If program module crashes, then restart program module.
D. If user’s input exceeds buffer length, then truncate the input.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83
Which of the following technologies uses multiple devices to share work?
A. Switching
B. Load balancing
C. RAID
D. VPN concentrator
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
Which of the following protocols uses an asymmetric key to open a session and then establishes a symmetric key for the remainder of the session?
A. SFTP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. TLS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
Which of the following describes how Sara, an attacker, can send unwanted advertisements to a mobile device?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. Bluejacking
C. Bluesnarfing
D. Packet sniffing

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
Pete, an employee, is terminated from the company and the legal department needs documents from his encrypted hard drive. Which of the following should be used to accomplish this task? (Select TWO).
A. Private hash
B. Recovery agent
C. Public key
D. Key escrow
E. CRL

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 87
Which of the following mitigation strategies is established to reduce risk when performing updates to business critical systems?
A. Incident management
B. Server clustering
C. Change management
D. Forensic analysis

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Which of the following can Pete, a security administrator, use to distribute the processing effort when generating hashes for a password cracking program?
A. RAID
B. Clustering
C. Redundancy
D. Virtualization

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
Which of the following should Jane, a security administrator, perform before a hard drive is analyzed with forensics tools?
A. Identify user habits
B. Disconnect system from network
C. Capture system image
D. Interview witnesses

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Jane, an administrator, needs to make sure the wireless network is not accessible from the parking area of their office. Which of the following would BEST help Jane when deploying a new access point?
A. Placement of antenna
B. Disabling the SSID
C. Implementing WPA2
D. Enabling the MAC filtering

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
Which of the following allows Pete, a security technician, to provide the MOST secure wireless implementation?
A. Implement WPA
B. Disable SSID
C. Adjust antenna placement
D. Implement WEP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
Which of the following is a management control?
A. Logon banners
B. Written security policy
C. SYN attack prevention
D. Access Control List (ACL)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Which of the following security strategies allows a company to limit damage to internal systems and provides loss control?
A. Restoration and recovery strategies
B. Deterrent strategies
C. Containment strategies
D. Detection strategies

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
In order for Sara, a client, to logon to her desktop computer, she must provide her username, password, and a four digit PIN. Which of the following authentication methods is Sara using?
A. Three factor
B. Single factor
C. Two factor
D. Four factor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
Using proximity card readers instead of the traditional key punch doors would help to mitigate:
A. Impersonation
B. Tailgating
C. Dumpster diving
D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 96
Which of the following application attacks is used to gain access to SEH?
A. Cookie stealing
B. Buffer overflow
C. Directory traversal
D. XML injection

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 141
You are working in an unstructured document. You want to change the formatting of an entire paragraph. What should you do?
A. define an attribute
B. apply a character tag
C. apply a paragraph tag
D. change to a different element

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 142
What happens when you apply a paragraph format that uses the Run-in Head property?
A. The run-in head begins on the same line as the previous paragraph.
B. Extra space between the run-in head and the next paragraph is eliminated.
C. Extra space between the run-in head and the previous paragraph is eliminated.
D. The paragraph following the run-in head begins on the same line as the run-in head.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 143
You have a multi-column layout. You want to insert a graphic so that it appears in the margin. Which setting should you use for the anchored frame?
A. Outside Column
B. At Top of Column
C. At Insertion Point
D. Outside Text Frame

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
Your document will contain certain words that you always want to format as bold and with a certain color. Which statement about formatting these words is true?
A. The most efficient way to accomplish this is to use Find/Change.
B. Both style formats can be accomplished by using a character format.
C. Applying bold is easily accomplished by using character formats, but not applying colors.
D. Bold is best controlled by a paragraph format, while color is best determined by a color definition.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 145
What happens when you make a hyphenation change in the Paragraph Designer and click Apply?
A. A new paragraph tag is created.
B. The Paragraph Catalog is updated.
C. You create an override to the paragraph tag.
D. All instances of the paragraph tag are changed.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 146
Your insertion point is in a Heading1 paragraph. In the status bar, the tag name has an asterisk before it. What does this mean?
A. The paragraph has an override.
B. The text is part of an invalid element.
C. A character tag has been applied to the text.
D. The tag was assigned by a context rule in the EDD.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 147
You are preparing to revise a document that contains formatting overrides. What is the most efficient way to remove these overrides?
A. use Find/Change to find the overrides and reapply the formats
B. change all text in the document to Body and reapply the formats as necessary
C. reapply all the paragraph and character formats manually throughout the document
D. choose Remove Format Overrides from the Import Formats dialog box, and import from the current document

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 148
Which three properties are modified when you apply a table format to an existing table? (Choose three.)
A. ruling
B. shading
C. column widths
D. table alignment
E. number of columns

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 149
You want one word in a paragraph to appear in bold, italic type. You will use this style for other words and phrases throughout your document. After highlighting the word, what should you do?
A. apply a character tag
B. apply a paragraph tag
C. click the B and I buttons in the QuickAccess bar
D. select Bold and Italic in the Paragraph Designer and click Apply

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 150
You have imported a file from Microsoft Word that contains a table. You place your insertion point in the table and apply a table tag that has a solid outside ruling but no column ruling and no body row ruling. The table continues to have rulings that do not match the table format.
What should you do?
A. select the entire table, and set rulings to As Is in the Table Designer
B. select the entire table and set rulings to None in the Custom Ruling and Shading dialog box
C. select the entire table and set rulings to From Table in the Custom Ruling and Shading dialog box
D. select the cells with the mismatched rulings, and set the corresponding rulings to From Table in the Table Designer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 151
You have selected the correct printer driver. For best results, which option should you select in the Set Print Separations dialog box when printing CMYK colors?
A. Don’t Print
B. Print as Spot
C. Print as Process
D. Print as Halftone
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 152
By default, which statement about printing from a FrameMaker book file is true?
A. You CANNOT print individual files in the book.
B. Element boundaries in a structured FrameMaker book do NOT print.
C. When you print a book, each file must be sent to the printer separately.
D. Internal cross-references and cross-references to open documents are updated automatically.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 153
For what is the MARKED metadata setting used?
A. to mark the document or book as web-purposed or print-purposed, or both
B. to mark the document or book as being copyrighted or in the public domain
C. to mark the document or book as containing watermarks and hidden text or not
D. to mark the document as ready for indexing and database incorporation or not

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 154
Which FrameMaker hypertext construct will NOT convert to HTML?
A. Alert
B. Message URL
C. Open Document
D. Jump to Named Destination

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 155
You have inserted the hypertext command Jump to Named Destination & Fit to Page in your document. What happens when you save your document as PDF and activate the link?
A. It jumps to a named destination, but does not fit to the page.
B. It displays the last location the reader viewed, but does not fit to page.
C. It jumps to a named destination and then resizes the window to fit the document page displayed.
D. It displays the last location the reader viewed and then resizes the window to fit the document page displayed.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 156
Which FrameMaker paragraph format will auto-map to a style in a standard WebWorks Publisher template?
A. heading1
B. Heading1
C. heading 1
D. Heading 1

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 157
You want to share your Adobe FrameMaker documents over the Web.
You want to retain as much of your page layout and typographic formatting as possible. In which file format should you save your document?
A. PDF
B. RTF
C. HTML

D. JPEG Correct Answer: A QUESTION 158
On which FrameMaker construct is tagged PDF based?
A. HTML tags
B. page layout
C. paragraph formats
D. structured FrameMaker elements

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 159
How do you set an object so that it overprints the object it overlaps?
A. select the object and choose Overprint Object from the Graphics menu
B. select the object and add it to the Overprint list in the Print dialog box
C. create a color definition that has overprint applied to it, and color the overlapped object with that color
D. select the object and choose Object Properties from the Graphics menu, then select Overprint from the Overprint pop-up menu

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 160
FrameMaker for Windows converts all color values to _____ when printing.
A. RGB
B. CMYK
C. L*a*b
D. Grayscale

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 161
Which HTML construct does an anchored frame always converts to?
A. <img>
B. <frame>
C. <a href>
D. <object>
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 162
Which file type assures the highest quality for printing line art at a high resolution?
A. GIF
B. BMP
C. SVG
D. JPG
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
You want to control which text appears in a generated list of figures. What should you do?
A. type the text on the master page for the list
B. edit the building blocks on the reference page
C. delete the text from the body page and regenerate the list
D. mark the text with a conditional tag and regenerate the list

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 164
Which statement about a structured FrameMaker book file is true?
A. You can split an element that represents a book file.
B. You can merge two elements that represent book files.
C. A book chapter containing structure will be represented by a BOOK-COMPONENT element after you generate and update the book file.
D. An Index file that does NOT contain structure will be represented by a BOOK-COMPONENT element after you generate and update the book file.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 165
Which statement about page numbering in a book is true?
A. You can set up multiple page numbering properties in a single document of the book.
B. Numbering properties in the individual documents override numbering properties in the book.
C. Numbering properties in the book override numbering properties in the individual documents.
D. Once you have set up numbering at the book level, you can delete page numbers from the individual files.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 166
Which statement about generated lists in a book is true?
A. By default, the generated list is in alphabetical order.
B. A marker is needed to create an entry in a generated list.
C. Unless you use a template, all entries in a generated list are initially formatted identically.
D. The generated list entries can be converted to hypertext by adding HTML tags or XML tags directly in FrameMaker.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 167
Which procedure changes the order of a document in a book file?
A. choose Edit > Move File from the application menu
B. click and drag the file to the new position in the Book window
C. select the file to be moved and use the arrow keys on the keyboard to change its position
D. select the file to be moved and use the arrow buttons at the bottom of the Book window change its position

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 168
You are working in a document that has conditional text. One of the conditions is hidden. What will happen to the hidden text if you import this file into a document that does NOT have any conditions defined?
A. The hidden text is NOT imported.
B. The hidden text becomes unconditional.
C. The hidden text is shown, and all of the conditions are added to the document.
D. The hidden text remains hidden, and all of the conditions are added to the document.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 169
Which key should you hold down while choosing the File menu, to allow book-wide commands for opening, closing, and saving appear?
A. Tab
B. Shift
C. Control
D. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 170
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to include an index in your document as shown in the exhibit. What should you type into the Marker dialog box to display “see also changing found items” as the last entry?

A. <$nopage>Finding items:see also changing found items
B. <$nopage>Finding items:see also changing found items<$nopage>
C. <$nopage>Finding items:see also changing found items<$endrange>
D. <$nopage>Finding items:see also changing found items
Correct Answer: D

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