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CheckPoint Certification

Checkpoint 156-215 Dump, Recenty Updated Checkpoint 156-215 Exam Tests Is What You Need To Take

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QUESTION 66
If yopu were NOT using IKE aggressive mode for you IPSec tunnel, how many packets would you see for normal phase exchange?
A. 6
B. 2
C. 3
D. 9

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
Which type of R71 Security Server does not provide User Authentication?
A. FTP Security Server
B. SMTP Security Server
C. HTTP Security Server
D. HTTPS Security Server

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 68
Which do you configure to give remote access VPN users a local IP address?
A. Office mode IP pool
B. NAT pool
C. Encryption domain pool
D. Authentication pool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
While in Smart View Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be an intrusion. He decides to block the traffic for 60 but cannot remember all the steps. What is the correct order of steps needed to perform this?
1) Select the Active Mode tab In Smart view Tracker 2) Select Tools Block Intruder 3) Select the Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker 4) Set the Blocking Time out value to 60 minutes 5) Highlight the connection he wishes to block
A. 3, 2, 5, 4
B. 3, 5, 2, 4
C. 1, 5, 2, 4
D. 1, 2, 5, 4

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A. Blank field under Rule Number
B. Rule 0
C. Cleanup Rule
D. Rule 1

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
You are creating an out put file with the following command:
Fw monitor 璭 “accept (src=10.20.30.40 or dst=10.20.30.40); “-0 ~/ output Which tool do you use to
analyze this file?

A. You can analyze it with Wireshark ot Ethernet
B. You can analyze the output file with any ASCII editor
C. The output file format is CSV, so you can use MS Excel to analyze it
D. You can analyze it with any tool as the Syntax should be: Fw monitor 璭 “accept (src=10.20.30.40 or dst=10.20.30.40); “-0 ~/ output

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Your company has headquarters in two countries: Toronto (Canada0 and Washingto (USA). Each headquarter has a number of branch offices. The branch offices only need to communicate with the headquarter in their county, not with each other i.e. no branch office should communicate with another branch office. An Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new IPSO-based R71 Security Gateway over the weekend. He e-mail you the SIC activation key. You want to confirm communication between the Security Gateway and the Managemet Server by installing thePolicy. What might prevent you from installing the Policy?
A. You first need to create a new UTM-1 Gateway object, establish SIC via the Communication button, and define the Gateway’s topology.
B. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server You must initialize SIC on the Security Management Server.
C. An intermediate local Security Gateway does not allow a plicy install through it to the remote new Security Gateway appliance Resolve by running the tw unloadlocal command on the local Security Gateway.
D. You first need to run the fw unloadlocal command on the R71 Security Gateway appliance in order to remove the restrictive default policy
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 73
Certificates for Security Gateways are created during a simple initialization from______.
A. SmartUpate
B. sysconfig
C. The ICA management tool.
D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running SecurePlatform. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout/
A. Log in as default user expert and start cpinfo.
B. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
C. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the commend, idle 60, then start cpinto.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
You have three servers located in DMZ address. You want internal users from 10.10.10×10 to access the DMZ servers by public IP.addresses. Internet.net 10.10.10xis configures for the NAT behind the security gateway external interface. What is the best configuration 10.10.10xusers to access the DMZ servers, using the DMZ servers,using the DMZ server public IP address?

A. When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the dmz SERVERS
B. When the source is the internal network 10.10.10xt configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers
C. When connecting to internal net work 10 10.10 x. configure Hide NAT for the DMZ sercers.
D. When connecting tio the internal network 10.10.10x, configure Hide Nat for the DMZ network behined the DMZ interface of the Security Gateway

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 76
What can NOT be selected for VPN tunnel shering?
A. One tunnel per subnet pair
B. One tunnel per Gateway pair
C. One tunnel per pair of hosts
D. One tunnel per VPN domain pair

Correct Answer: B

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CheckPoint Certification

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QUESTION 80
What is the default port number for standard TCP connections with the LDAP server?
A. 398
B. 636
C. 389
D. 363

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
What is the default port number for Secure Sockets Layer connections with the LDAP Server?
A. 363
B. 389
C. 398
D. 636

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 31 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam When defining an Organizational Unit, which of the following are NOT valid object categories?
A. Domains
B. Resources
C. Users
D. Services

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
When defining SmartDirectory for High Availability (HA), which of the following should you do?
A. Replicate the same information on multiple Active Directory servers.
B. Configure Secure Internal Communications with each server and fetch branches from each.
C. Configure a SmartDirectory Cluster object.
D. Configure the SmartDirectory as a single object using the LDAP cluster IP. Actual HA functionality is configured on the servers.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 84
The set of rules that governs the types of objects in the directory and their associated attributes is called thE.
A. LDAP Policy
B. Schema
C. Access Control List
D. SmartDatabase

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 32 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam When using SmartDashboard to manage existing users in SmartDirectory, when are the changes applied?
A. Instantaneously
B. At policy installation
C. Never, you cannot manage users through SmartDashboard
D. At database synchronization

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
Where multiple SmartDirectory servers exist in an organization, a query from one of the clients for user information is made to the servers based on a priority. By what category can this priority be defined?
A. Gateway or Domain
B. Location or Account Unit
C. Location or Domain
D. Gateway or Account Unit

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
Each entry in SmartDirectory has a unique _______________ ?
A. Distinguished Name
B. Organizational Unit
C. Port Number Association
D. Schema

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 88
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 33 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R75 user definitions on a(n) _________ Server.
A. SecureID
B. LDAP
C. NT Domain
D. Radius

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 89
Which describes the function of the account unit?
A. An Account Unit is the Check Point account that SmartDirectory uses to access an (LDAP) server
B. An Account Unit is a system account on the Check Point gateway that SmartDirectory uses to access an (LDAP) server
C. An Account Unit is the administration account on the LDAP server that SmartDirectory uses to access to (LDAP) server
D. An Account Unit is the interface which allows interaction between the Security Management server and Security Gateways, and the SmartDirectory (LDAP) server.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
An organization may be distributed across several SmartDirectory (LDAP) servers. What provision do you make to enable a Gateway to use all available resources? Each SmartDirectory (LDAP) server must be:
A. a member in the LDAP group.
B. a member in a group that is associated with one Account Unit.
C. represented by a separate Account Unit.
D. represented by a separate Account Unit that is a member in the LDAP group.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 91
Which is NOT a method through which Identity Awareness receives its identities?
A. GPO
B. Captive Portal
C. AD Query
D. Identity Agent

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
If using AD Query for seamless identity data reception from Microsoft Active Directory (AD), which of the following methods is NOT Check Point recommended?
A. Leveraging identity in Internet application control
B. Identity-based auditing and logging
C. Basic identity enforcement in the internal network
D. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 93
When using Captive Portal to send unidentified users to a Web portal for authentication, which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?
A. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)
B. For deployment of Identity Agents
C. Basic identity enforcement in the internal network
D. Leveraging identity in Internet application control

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 94
Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign-On (SSO). Which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?
A. When accuracy in detecting identity is crucial
B. Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)
C. Protecting highly sensitive servers
D. Leveraging identity for Data Center protection

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95
Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal?
A. Through the Firewall policy
B. From the Internet
C. Through all interfaces
D. Through internal interfaces

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
Where do you verify that SmartDirectory is enabled?
A. Global properties > Authentication> Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked
B. Gateway properties > Smart Directory (LDAP) > Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked
C. Gateway properties > Authentication> Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked
D. Global properties > Smart Directory (LDAP) > Use SmartDirectory(LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 36 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
Remote clients are using IPSec VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the organization. Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication?
A. vpnd
B. cpvpnd
C. fwm
D. fwd

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 98
Remote clients are using SSL VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the organization. Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication?
A. vpnd
B. cpvpnd
C. fwm
D. fwd

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 99
Which of the following is NOT a LDAP server option in SmartDirectory?
A. Novell_DS
B. Netscape_DS
C. OPSEC_DS
D. Standard_DS

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
An Account Unit is the interface between the __________ and the __________.
A. Users, Domain
B. Gateway, Resources
C. System, Database
D. Clients, Server

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 101
Which of the following is a valid Active Directory designation for user John Doe in the Sales department of AcmeCorp.com?
A. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,ou=acmecorp,dc=com
B. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,ou=acme,ou=corp,dc=com
C. Cn=john_doe,dc=Sales,dc=acmecorp,dc=com
D. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,dc=acmecorp,dc=com

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Which of the following is a valid Active Directory designation for user Jane Doe in the MIS department of AcmeCorp.com?
A. Cn= jane_doe,ou=MIS,DC=acmecorp,dc=com
B. Cn= jane_doe,ou=MIS,cn=acmecorp,dc=com
C. Cn=jane_doe,ou=MIS,dc=acmecorp,dc=com
D. Cn= jane_doe,ou=MIS,cn=acme,cn=corp,dc=com

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
Which utility or command is useful for debugging by capturing packet information, including verifying LDAP authentication?
A. fw monitor
B. ping
C. um_core enable
D. fw debug fwm

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 104
You can NOT use SmartDashboard’s SmartDirectory features to connect to the LDAP server. What should you investigate?
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 105
If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?
A. Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
B. Domain name resolution
C. Overlapping VPN Domains
D. Connectivity between the R75 Gateway and LDAP server

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 106
How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of a R75 Security Gateway?
A. By using the Clear User Cache button in SmartDashboard
B. By retrieving LDAP user information using the command fw fetchldap
C. Usernames and passwords only clear from memory after they time out
D. By installing a Security Policy

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 107
When an Endpoint user is able to authenticate but receives a message from the client that it is unable to enforce the desktop policy, what is the most likely scenario?
A. The user’s rights prevent access to the protected network.
B. A Desktop Policy is not configured.
C. The gateway could not locate the user in SmartDirectory and is allowing the connection with limitations based on a generic profile.
D. The user is attempting to connect with the wrong Endpoint client.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 108
When using a template to define a SmartDirectory, where should the user’s password be defined? In the:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 40 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. Template object
B. VPN Community object
C. User object
D. LDAP object

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 109
When configuring an LDAP Group object, which option should you select if you want the gateway to reference the groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes?
A. All Account-Unit’s Users
B. Only Group in Branch
C. Group Agnostic
D. OU Accept and select appropriate domain

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 110
When configuring an LDAP Group object, which option should you select if you do NOT want the gateway to reference the groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes?
A. OU Accept and select appropriate domain
B. Only Sub Tree
C. Only Group in Branch
D. Group Agnostic

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 111
When configuring an LDAP Group object, which option should you select if you want the gateway to reference the groups defined on the LDAP server for authentication purposes?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 41 Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. Only Group in Branch
B. Only Sub Tree
C. OU Auth and select Group Name
D. All Account-Unit’s Users

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
The process that performs the authentication for SmartDashboard is:
A. fwm
B. vpnd
C. cvpnd
D. cpd

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 113
The process that performs the authentication for Remote Access is:
A. cpd
B. vpnd
C. fwm

D. cvpnd Correct Answer: B QUESTION 114
The process that performs the authentication for SSL VPN Users is:
A. cvpnd
B. cpd
C. fwm
D. vpnd

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 115
The process that performs the authentication for legacy session authentication is:
A. cvpnd
B. fwm
C. vpnd
D. fwssd

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 116

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QUESTION 61
Jacob is using a mesh VPN Community to create a site-to-site VPN. The VPN properties in this mesh Community display in this graphic:Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. If Jacob changes the setting, “Perform key exchange encryption with” from “3DES” to “DES”, he will enhance the VPN Community’s security and reduce encryption overhead.
B. Jacob must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with AES.
C. If Jacob changes the setting “Perform IPSec data encryption with” from “AES-128” to “3DES”, he will increase the encryption overhead.
D. Jacob’s VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the longest key VPN-1 NGX supports.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
Barak is a Security Administrator for an organization that has two sites using pre-shared secrets in its
VPN. The two sites are Oslo and London. Barak has just been informed that a new office is opening in
Madrid, and he must enable all three sites to connect via the VPN to each other. Three Security Gateways
are managed by the same SmartCenter Server, behind the Oslo Security Gateway. Barak decides to
switch from pre-shared secrets to Certificates issued by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA). After
creating the Madrid gateway object with the proper VPN Domain, what are Barak’s remaining steps?

1.Disable “Pre-Shared Secret” on the London and Oslo gateway objects.
2.Add the Madrid gateway object into the Oslo and London’s mesh VPN Community.
3.Manually generate ICA Certificates for all three Security Gateways.
4.Configure “Traditional mode VPN configuration” in the Madrid gateway object’s VPN screen.
5.Reinstall the Security Policy on all three Security Gateways.

A. 1, 2, 5
B. 1,3,4,5
C. 1,2,3,5
D. 1,2,4,5
E. 1, 2,3,4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
State Synchronization is enabled on both members in a cluster, and the Security Policy is successfully installed. No protocols or services have been unselected for “selective sync”.
The following is the fw tab -t connections -s output from both members:Is State Synchronization working properly between the two members?

A. Members A and B are synchronized, because ID for both members is identical in the connections table.
B. The connections-table output is incomplete. You must run the cphaprob state command, to determine if members A and B are synchronized.
C. Members A and B are not synchronized, because #PEAK for both members is not close in the connections table.
D. Members A and B are synchronized, because #SLINKS are identical in the connections table.
E. Members A and B are not synchronized, because #VALS in the connections table are not close.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 64
You must set up SIP with a proxy for your network. IP phones are in the 172.16.100.0 network. The Registrar and proxy are installed on host 172.16.100.100. To allow handover enforcement for outbound calls from SIP-net to network Net_B on the Internet, you have defined the following objects:
Network object: SIP-net: 172.16.100.0/24 SIP-gateway: 172.16.100.100 VoIP Domain object: VoIP_domain_A 1.End-point domain: SIP-net 2.VoIP gateway installed at: SIP-gateway host object
How would you configure the rule?
A. SIP-Gateway/Net_B/sip_any/accept
B. VoIP_domain_A/Net_B/sip/accept
C. SIP-Gateway/Net_B/sip/accept
D. VoIP_domain_A/Net_B/sip_any, and sip/accept
E. VoIP_Gateway_A/Net_B/sip_any/accept
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Jennifer wants to protect internal users from malicious Java code, but she does not want to strip Java scripts. Which is the BEST configuration option?
A. Use the URI resource to block Java code
B. Use CVP in the URI resource to block Java code
C. Use the URI resource to strip ActiveX tags
D. Use the URI resource to strip applet tags
E. Use the URI resource to strip script tags

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
Your network includes ClusterXL running Multicast mode on two members, as shown in this topology:Your
network is expanding, and you need to add new interfaces:
10.10.10.1/24 on Member A, and 10.10.10.2/24 on Member B. The virtual IP address for interface
10.10.10.0/24 is 10.10.10.3. What is the correct procedure to add these interfaces?
A. 1. Use the ifconfig command to configure and enable the new interface.
2.
Run cpstop and cpstart on both members at the same time.

3.
Update the topology in the cluster object for the cluster and both members.

4.
Install the Security Policy.
B. 1. Disable “Cluster membership” from one Gateway via cpconfig.
2.
Configure the new interface via sysconfig from the “non-member” Gateway.

3.
Re-enable “Cluster membership” on the Gateway.

4.
Perform the same step on the other Gateway.

5.
Update the topology in the cluster object for the cluster and members.

6.
Install the Security Policy.
C. 1. Run cpstop on one member, and configure the new interface via sysconfig.
2.
Run cpstart on the member. Repeat the same steps on another member.

3.
Update the new topology in the cluster object for the cluster and members.

4.
Install the Security Policy.
D. 1. Use sysconfig to configure the new interfaces on both members.
2.
Update the topology in the cluster object for the cluster and both members.

3.
Install the Security Policy.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 67
You are configuring the VoIP Domain object for an H.323 environment, protected by VPN-1 NGX. Which VoIP Domain object type can you use?
A. Transmission Router
B. Gatekeeper
C. Call Manager
D. Proxy
E. Call Agent

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use three machines with the following configurations:Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?

A. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
B. No, QuadCards are not supported with ClusterXL.
C. No, all machines in a cluster must be running on the same OS.
D. No, a cluster must have an even number of machines.
E. No, ClusterXL is not supported on Red Hat Linux.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
You receive an alert indicating a suspicious FTP connection is trying to connect to one of your internal hosts. How do you block the connection in real time and verify the connection is successfully blocked?
A. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Active mode. Block the connection using the Tools > Block Intruder menu. Use the Active mode to confirm that the suspicious connection does not reappear.
B. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Log mode. Block the connection using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Use Log mode to confirm that the suspicious connection does not reappear.
C. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Active mode. Block the connection using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Use Active mode to confirm that the suspicious connection is dropped.
D. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Log mode. Block the connection using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Use the Log mode to confirm that the suspicious connection is dropped.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
You want to block corporate-internal-net and localnet from accessing Web sites containing inappropriate content. You are using WebTrends for URL filtering. You have disabled VPN-1 Control connections in the Global properties. Review the diagram and the Security Policies for GW_A and GW_B in the exhibit provided.
Corporate users and localnet users receive message “Web cannot be displayed”. In SmartView Tracker, you see the connections are dropped with message “content security is not reachable”. What is the problem, and how do you fix it?
A. The connection from GW_B to the internal WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_A’s Policy to allow source WebTrends Server, destination GW_B, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.
B. The connection from GW_B to the WebTrend server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_B’s Policy with Source GW_B, destination WebTrends server, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.
C. The connection from GW_A to the WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_B’s Policy with source WebTrends server, destination GW_A, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.
D. The connection from GW_A to the WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_B’s Policy with source GW_A, destination: WebTrends server, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.
E. The connection from GW_A to the WebTrends server is not allowed in the Policy. Fix: Add a rule in GW_A’s Policy to allow source GW_A, destination WebTrends server, service TCP port 18182, and action accept.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
Wayne configures an HTTP Security Server to work with the content vectoring protocol to screen forbidden sites. He has created a URI resource object using CVP with the following settings:
Use CVP Allow CVP server to modify content Return data after content is approved
He adds two rules to his Rule Base: one to inspect HTTP traffic going to known forbidden sites, the other to allow all other HTTP traffic.
Wayne sees HTTP traffic going to those problematic sites is not prohibited.
What could cause this behavior?
A. The Security Server Rule is after the general HTTP Accept Rule.
B. The Security Server is not communicating with the CVP server.
C. The Security Server is not configured correctly.
D. The Security Server is communicating with the CVP server, but no restriction is defined in the CVP server.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
What is the consequence of clearing the “Log VoIP Connection” box in Global Properties?
A. Dropped VoIP traffic is logged, but accepted VoIP traffic is not logged.
B. VoIP protocol-specific log fields are not included in SmartView Tracker entries.
C. The log field setting in rules for VoIP protocols are ignored.
D. IP addresses are used, instead of object names, in log entries that reference VoIP Domain objects.
E. The SmartCenter Server stops importing logs from VoIP servers.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Your organization has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow VPN-1 SecureClient users to access company resources. For security reasons, your organization’s Security Policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters’ VPN-1 Pro Security Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
A. To the Internet and other targets only
B. To the center and other satellites, through the center
C. To the center only
D. To the center; or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other VPN targets

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
You are configuring the VoIP Domain object for a Skinny Client Control Protocol (SCCP) environment protected by VPN-1 NGX. Which VoIP Domain object type can you use?
A. CallManager
B. Gatekeeper
C. Gateway
D. Proxy
E. Transmission Router

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Your VPN Community includes three Security Gateways. Each Gateway has its own internal network defined as a VPN Domain. You must test the VPN-1 NGX route-based VPN feature, without stopping the VPN. What is the correct order of steps?
A. 1. Add a new interface on each Gateway.
2.
Remove the newly added network from the current VPN Domain for each Gateway.

3.
Create VTIs on each Gateway, to point to the other two peers

4.
Enable advanced routing on all three Gateways.
B. 1. Add a new interface on each Gateway.
2.
Remove the newly added network from the current VPN Domain in each gateway object.

3.
Create VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTI) on each gateway object, to point to the other two peers.

4.
Add static routes on three Gateways, to route the new network to each peer’s VTI interface.
C. 1. Add a new interface on each Gateway.
2.
Add the newly added network into the existing VPN Domain for each Gateway.

3.
Create VTIs on each gateway object, to point to the other two peers.

4.
Enable advanced routing on all three Gateways.
D. 1. Add a new interface on each Gateway.
2.
Add the newly added network into the existing VPN Domain for each gateway object.

3.
Create VTIs on each gateway object, to point to the other two peers.

4.
Add static routes on three Gateways, to route the new networks to each peer’s VTI interface.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
You must set up SIP with a proxy for your network. IP phones are in the 172.16.100.0 network. The Registrar and proxy are installed on host 172.16.100.100. To allow handover enforcement for outbound calls from SIP-net to network Net_B on the Internet, you have defined the following objects:
Network object: SIP-net: 172.16.100.0/24 SIP-gateway: 172.16.100.100 VoIP Domain object: VoIP_domain_A 1.End-point domain: SIP-net 2.VoIP gateway installed at: SIP-gateway host object
How would you configure the rule?
A. SIP-Gateway/Net_B/sip/accept
B. VoIP_Gateway_A/Net_B/sip/accept
C. SIP-Gateway/Net_B/sip_any/accept
D. VoIP_domain_A/Net_B/sip_any, and sip/accept
E. VoIP_domain_A/Net_B/sip_any/accept

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 77
You want to upgrade a cluster with two members to VPN-1 NGX. The SmartCenter Server and both members are version VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG FP3, with the latest Hotfix.
What is the correct upgrade procedure?
1.
Change the version, in the General Properties of the gateway-cluster object.

2.
Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, and reboot after upgrade.

3.
Run cpstop on one member, while leaving the other member running. Upgrade one member at a time, and reboot after upgrade.

4.
Reinstall the Security Policy.
A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
C. 1, 3, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
You are reviewing SmartView Tracker entries, and see a Connection Rejection on a Check Point QoS rule. What causes the Connection Rejection?
A. No QOS rule exists to match the rejected traffic.
B. The number of guaranteed connections is exceeded. The rule’s action properties are not set to accept additional connections.
C. The Constant Bit Rate for a Low Latency Class has been exceeded by greater than 10%, and the Maximal Delay is set below requirements.
D. Burst traffic matching the Default Rule is exhausting the Check Point QoS global packet buffers.
E. The guarantee of one of the rule’s sub-rules exceeds the guarantee in the rule itself.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
In a distributed VPN-1 Pro NGX environment, where is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) installed?
A. On the Security Gateway
B. Certificate Manager Server
C. On the Policy Server
D. On the Smart View Monitor
E. On the primary SmartCenter Server

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 80
You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities. How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. internal_clear > All_GwToGw
B. Communities > Communities
C. Internal_clear > External_Clear
D. Internal_clear > Communities
E. internal_clear > All_communities

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 81
You want to create an IKE VPN between two VPN-1 NGX Security Gateways, to protect two networks. The network behind one Gateway is 10.15.0.0/16, and network 192.168.9.0/24 is behind the peer’s Gateway. Which type of address translation should you use, to ensure the two networks access each other through the VPN tunnel?
A. Manual NAT
B. Static NAT
C. Hide NAT
D. None
E. Hide NAT

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
Robert has configured a Common Internet File System (CIFS) resource to allow access to the public partition of his company’s file server, on \\erisco\goldenapple\files\public.
Robert receives reports that users are unable to access the shared partition, unless they use the file server’s IP address. Which of the following is a possible cause?
A. Mapped shares do not allow administrative locks.
B. The CIFS resource is not configured to use Windows name resolution.
C. Access violations are not logged.
D. Remote registry access is blocked.
E. Null CIFS sessions are blocked.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use three machines with the following configurations:Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?

A. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
B. No, QuadCards are not supported with ClusterXL.
C. No, all machines in a cluster must be running on the same OS.
D. No, a cluster must have an even number of machines.
E. No, ClusterXL is not supported on Red Hat Linux.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
Which of the following commands shows full synchronization status?
A. cphaprob -i list
B. cphastop
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob -a if
E. fw hastat

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the performance of Check Point QoS?
A. Turn “per rule guarantees” into “per connection guarantees”.
B. Install Check Point QoS only on the external interfaces of the QoS Module.
C. Put the most frequently used rules at the bottom of the QoS Rule Base.
D. Turn “per rule limits” into “per connection limits”.
E. Define weights in the Default Rule in multiples of 10.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 35
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products.
Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and
simplify time allotment.

Which back up method does Check Point recommend anytime outside a maintenance window?

A. backup
B. migrate export
C. backup_export
D. snapshot

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
The file snapshot generates is very large, and can only be restored to:
A. The device that created it, after it has been upgraded
B. Individual members of a cluster configuration
C. Windows Server class systems D. A device having exactly the same Operating System as the device that created the file

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 37
When restoring a Security Management Server from a backup file, the restore package can be retrieved from which source?
A. HTTP server, FTP server, or TFTP server
B. Disk, SCP server, or TFTP server
C. Local folder, TFTP server, or FTP server
D. Local folder, TFTP server, or Disk

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
When upgrading Check Point products in a distributed environment, in which order should you upgrade these components?
1.
GUI Client

2.
Security Management Server

3.
Security Gateway
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 3, 1

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
When using migrate to upgrade a Secure Management Server, which of the following is included in the migration?
A. SmartEvent database
B. SmartReporter database
C. classes.C file
D. System interface configuration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R75 installation on a new computer
and then migrate the database from the original machine.
When doing this, what is required of the two machines?
They must both have the same:
A. Products installed.
B. Interfaces configured.
C. State.
D. Patch level.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R75 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine.
What is the correct order of the steps below to successfully complete this procedure?
1) Export databases from source.
2) Connect target to network.
3) Prepare the source machine for export.
4) Import databases to target.
5) Install new version on target.
6) Test target deployment.

A. 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
C. 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4
D. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 42
During a Security Management Server migrate export, the system:
A. Creates a backup file that includes the SmartEvent database.
B. Creates a backup file that includes the SmartReporter database.
C. Creates a backup archive for all the Check Point configuration settings.
D. Saves all system settings and Check Point product configuration settings to a file.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 43
If no flags are defined during a back up on the Security Management Server, where does the system store the *.tgz file?
A. /var/opt/backups
B. /var/backups
C. /var/CPbackup/backups
D. /var/tmp/backups

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
Which is NOT a valid option when upgrading Cluster Deployments?
A. Full Connectivity Upgrade
B. Fast path Upgrade
C. Minimal Effort Upgrade
D. Zero Downtime

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
In a “zero downtime” scenario, which command do you run manually after all cluster members are upgraded?
A. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set mc_relod
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
Which command provides cluster upgrade status?
A. cphaprob status
B. cphaprob ldstat
C. cphaprob fcustat
D. cphaprob tablestat

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 47
John is upgrading a cluster from NGX R65 to R75.
John knows that you can verify the upgrade process using the pre-upgrade verifier tool.
When John is running Pre-Upgrade Verification, he sees the warning message: ‘Incompatible pattern’.

What is happening?
A. R75 uses a new pattern matching engine. Incompatible patterns should be deleted before upgrade process to complete it successfully.
B. Pre-Upgrade Verification process detected a problem with actual configuration and upgrade will be aborted.
C. Pre-Upgrade Verification tool only shows that message but it is only informational.
D. The actual configuration contains user defined patterns in IPS that are not supported in R75. If the patterns are not fixed after upgrade, they will not be used with R75 Security Gateways.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 48
Which command would you use to save the routing information before upgrading a SecurePlatform Gateway?
A. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C
B. netstat 璻n > .txt

C. ifconfig > .txt

D. ipconfig 璦 > .txt

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
Which command would you use to save the routing information before upgrading a Windows Gateway?
A. ipconfig 璦 > .txt

B. ifconfig > .txt

C. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C

D. netstat 璻n > .txt

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
When upgrading a cluster in Full Connectivity Mode, the first thing you must do is see if all cluster members have the same products installed.
Which command should you run?
A. fw fcu
B. cphaprob fcustat C. cpconfig
D. fw ctl conn -a

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
A Minimal Effort Upgrade of a cluster:
A. Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R71 to R75).
B. Is not a valid upgrade method in R75.
C. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.
D. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 52
A Zero Downtime Upgrade of a cluster:
A. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.
B. Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R71 to R75).
C. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.
D. Is not a valid upgrade method in R75.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
A Full Connectivity Upgrade of a cluster:
A. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.
B. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.
C. Is only supported in minor version upgrades (R70 to R71, R71 to R75).
D. Is not a valid upgrade method in R75.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
A Fast Path Upgrade of a cluster:
A. Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.
B. Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.
C. Is not a valid upgrade method in R75.
D. Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R71 to R75).

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
How does Check Point recommend that you secure the sync interface between gateways?
A. Configure the sync network to operate within the DMZ.
B. Secure each sync interface in a cluster with Endpoint.
C. Use a dedicated sync network.
D. Encrypt all sync traffic between cluster members.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
How would you set the debug buffer size to 1024?
A. Run fw ctl set buf 1024
B. Run fw ctl kdebug 1024
C. Run fw ctl debug -buf 1024
D. Run fw ctl set int print_cons 1024

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
Steve is troubleshooting a connection problem with an internal application.
If he knows the source IP address is 192.168.4.125, how could he filter this traffic?

A. Run fw monitor -e “accept dsrc=192.168.4.125;”
B. Run fw monitor -e “accept dst=192.168.4.125;”
C. Run fw monitor -e “accept ip=192.168.4.125;”
D. Run fw monitor -e “accept src=192.168.4.125;”

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Check Point support has asked Tony for a firewall capture of accepted packets.
What would be the correct syntax to create a capture file to a filename called monitor.out?

A. Run fw monitor -e “accept;” -f monitor.out
B. Run fw monitor -e “accept;” -c monitor.out
C. Run fw monitor -e “accept;” -o monitor.out
D. Run fw monitor -e “accept;” -m monitor.out

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
What is NOT a valid LDAP use in Check Point SmartDirectory?
A. Retrieve gateway CRL’s
B. External users management
C. Enforce user access to internal resources
D. Provide user authentication information for the Security Management Server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management in SmartDashboard, using an LDAP server.
A. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties.
B. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object.
C. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP server, and configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit.
D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and create an LDAP resource object.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 61
The User Directory Software Blade is used to integrate which of the following with a R75 Security Gateway?
A. LDAP server
B. RADIUS server
C. Account Management Client server
D. UserAuthority server

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a Client Authentication rule.
Which kind of user group do you need in the Client Authentication rule in R75?
A. LDAP group
B. External-user group
C. A group with a generic user
D. All Users

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Which of the following commands do you run on the AD server to identify the DN name before configuring LDAP integration with the Security Gateway?
A. query ldap -name administrator
B. dsquery user -name administrator
C. ldapquery -name administrator
D. cpquery -name administrator

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 64
In SmartDirectory, what is each LDAP server called?
A. Account Server
B. Account Unit
C. LDAP Server
D. LDAP Unit

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 65
What is the default port number for standard TCP connections with the LDAP server?
A. 398
B. 636
C. 389
D. 363

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
What is the default port number for Secure Sockets Layer connections with the LDAP Server?
A. 363
B. 389
C. 398
D. 636

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
When defining an Organizational Unit, which of the following are NOT valid object categories?
A. Domains
B. Resources
C. Users
D. Services

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
When defining SmartDirectory for High Availability (HA), which of the following should you do?
A. Replicate the same information on multiple Active Directory servers.
B. Configure Secure Internal Communications with each server and fetch branches from each.
C. Configure a SmartDirectory Cluster object.
D. Configure the SmartDirectory as a single object using the LDAP cluster IP. Actual HA functionality is configured on the servers.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
The set of rules that governs the types of objects in the directory and their associated attributes is called thE.
A. LDAP Policy
B. Schema
C. Access Control List
D. SmartDatabase

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 70
When using SmartDashboard to manage existing users in SmartDirectory, when are the changes applied?
A. Instantaneously
B. At policy installation
C. Never, you cannot manage users through SmartDashboard
D. At database synchronization

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 71
Where multiple SmartDirectory servers exist in an organization, a query from one of the clients for user information is made to the servers based on a priority.
By what category can this priority be defined?
A. Gateway or Domain
B. Location or Account Unit
C. Location or Domain
D. Gateway or Account Unit

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 72
Each entry in SmartDirectory has a unique _______________ ?
A. Distinguished Name
B. Organizational Unit
C. Port Number Association
D. Schema

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 73
With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R75 user definitions on a(n) _________ Server.
A. SecureID
B. LDAP
C. NT Domain
D. Radius

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 74
Which describes the function of the account unit?
A. An Account Unit is the Check Point account that SmartDirectory uses to access an (LDAP) server
B. An Account Unit is a system account on the Check Point gateway that SmartDirectory uses to access an (LDAP) server
C. An Account Unit is the administration account on the LDAP server that SmartDirectory uses to access to (LDAP) server
D. An Account Unit is the interface which allows interaction between the Security Management server and Security Gateways, and the SmartDirectory (LDAP) server.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 75
An organization may be distributed across several SmartDirectory (LDAP) servers.
What provision do you make to enable a Gateway to use all available resources? Each SmartDirectory (LDAP) server must be:
A. a member in the LDAP group.
B. a member in a group that is associated with one Account Unit.
C. represented by a separate Account Unit.
D. represented by a separate Account Unit that is a member in the LDAP group.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 76
Which is NOT a method through which Identity Awareness receives its identities?
A. GPO
B. Captive Portal
C. AD Query
D. Identity Agent Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 77
When using Captive Portal to send unidentified users to a Web portal for authentication, which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?
A. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)
B. For deployment of Identity Agents
C. Basic identity enforcement in the internal network
D. Leveraging identity in Internet application control

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 78
Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign-On (SSO). Which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?
A. When accuracy in detecting identity is crucial
B. Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)
C. Protecting highly sensitive servers
D. Leveraging identity for Data Center protection

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal?
A. Through the Firewall policy
B. From the Internet
C. Through all interfaces
D. Through internal interfaces

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 80
Remote clients are using IPSec VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the organization. Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication?
A. vpnd
B. cvpnd
C. fwm
D. fwd

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
Remote clients are using SSL VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the organization. Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication?
A. vpnd
B. cvpnd
C. fwm
D. fwd

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
Which of the following is NOT a LDAP server option in SmartDirectory?
A. Novell_DS
B. Netscape_DS
C. OPSEC_DS
D. Standard_DS

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
An Account Unit is the interface between the __________ and the __________.
A. Users, Domain
B. Gateway, Resources
C. System, Database
D. Clients, Server

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Which of the following is a valid Active Directory designation for user John Doe in the Sales department of AcmeCorp.com?
A. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,ou=acmecorp,dc=com
B. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,ou=acme,ou=corp,dc=com
C. Cn=john_doe,dc=Sales,dc=acmecorp,dc=com
D. Cn=john_doe,ou=Sales,dc=acmecorp,dc=com

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 85
Which utility or command is useful for debugging by capturing packet information, including verifying LDAP authentication?
A. fw monitor
B. ping
C. um_core enable
D. fw debug fwm
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 45
What must occur before an (S,G) entry can be populated in the multicast routing table?
A. The (*,G) entry must have timed out
B. The (*,G) entry OIL must be null
C. The router must be directly connected to the multicast source
D. The parent (*,G) entry must be created first

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 46
Which field in the IPv6 header can be used to set the DSCP value?
A. Flow Label
B. Type of Service
C. Traffic Class “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 32 Cisco 642-885 Exam
D. Precedence
E. EXP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Traffic Class
The Traffic Class field is an 8 bit field that is used to signify the importance of the data contained within this specific packet. With IPv4, this information was signified with the TOS field and supported both IP precedence and Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP). The Traffic Class field used with IPv6 supports DSCP solely; this specification uses the first 6 bits to indicate the Per Hop Behavior (PHB) of the contained data; these PHB*s are defined in RFC 2474 and its additions.
QUESTION 47
Which mechanism is used by an IPv6 multicast receiver to join an IPv6 multicast group?
A. IGMP report
B. IGMP join
C. MLD report
D. General query
E. PIM join

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: MLD Reports
The processing of MLDv1 join messages is essentially the same as with IGMPv2. When no IPv6 multicast routers are detected in a VLAN, reports are not processed or forwarded from the switch. When IPv6 multicast routers are detected and an MLDv1 report is received, an IPv6 multicast group address and an IPv6 multicast MAC address are entered in the VLAN MLD database. Then all IPv6 multicast traffic to the group within the VLAN is forwarded using this address. When MLD snooping is disabled, reports are flooded in the ingress VLAN.
When MLD snooping is enabled, MLD report suppression, called listener message suppression, is automatically enabled. With report suppression, the switch forwards the first MLDv1 report received by a group to IPv6 multicast routers; subsequent reports for the group are not sent to the routers. When MLD snooping is disabled, report suppression is disabled, and all MLDv1 reports are flooded to the ingress VLAN.
The switch also supports MLDv1 proxy reporting. When an MLDv1 MASQ is received, the switch responds with MLDv1 reports for the address on which the query arrived if the group exists in the switch on another port and if the port on which the query arrived is not the last member port for the address.
QUESTION 48
Which of the following can be used by dual-stack service providers supporting IPv4/IPv6 customers with dual-stack hosts using public IPv6 addresses and private IPv4 addresses?
A. NAT64
B. 6RD
C. 6to4 tunnels
D. Carrier-grade NAT

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Carrier Grade NAT is a large-scale NAT, capable of providing private-IPv4-to-public-IPv4 translation in the order of millions of translations. Carrier Grade NAT can support several hundred thousand subscribers with the bandwidth throughput of at least 10Gb/s full-duplex. With IPv4 addresses reaching depletion, Carrier Grade NAT is vital in providing private IPv4 connectivity to the public IPv4 internet. In addition, Carrier Grade NAT is not limited to IPv4 NAT; it can also translate between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses
QUESTION 49
Refer to the Cisco IOS DHCPv6 configuration shown in the exhibit. Which statement is correct?

A. The configuration is missing a command under interface Gi0/1 to indicate to the attached hosts to use stateful DHCPv6 to obtain their IPv6 addresses
B. The IPv6 router advertisements indicate to the attached hosts on the Gi0/1 interface to get other information besides their IPv6 address via stateless auto configuration “First Test, First Pass” -www.lead2pass.com 33 Cisco 642-885 Exam
C. The IPv6 DHCPv6 server pool configuration is misconfigured
D. The DNS server address can also be imported from another upstream DHCPv6 server

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Server Configuration
In Global Configuration Mode
ipv6 unciast-routing
ipv6 dhcp pool <pool name>
address prefix <specify address prefix> lifetime <infinite> <infinite>
dns-server <specify the dns server address>
domain-name <specify the domain name>
exit
In Interface Configuration Mode
ipv6 address <specify IPv6 Address>
ipv6 dhcp server <server name>rapid-commit
Client Configuration
In Global Configuration Mode enable configure terminal ipv6 unicast-routing In Interface Configuration Mode ipv6 address dhcp rapid commitipv6 enable exit
QUESTION 50
Which IPv6 mechanism occurs between a provider edge router and the customer premises equipment router to allow an ISP to automate the process of assigning a block of IPv6 addresses to a customer for use within the customer network?
A. Router Advertisement
B. DHCPv6 Prefix Delegation
C. DHCPv6 Lite
D. Stateful DHCPv6

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk872/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080b8a116.shtml
QUESTION 51
Which three statements regarding NAT64 operations are correct? (Choose three.)
A. With stateful NAT64, many IPv6 address can be translated into one IPv4 address, thus IPv4 address conservation is achieved
B. Stateful NAT64 requires the use of static translation slots so IPv6 hosts and initiate connections to IPv4 hosts.
C. With stateless NAT64, the source and destination IPv4 addresses are embedded in the IPv6 addresses
D. NAT64 works in conjunction with DNS64
E. Both the stateful and stateless NAT64 methods will conserve IPv4 address usage

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Stateful NAT64-Network Address and Protocol Translation from IPv6 Clients to IPv4 Servers Stateful NAT64 multiplexes many IPv6 devices into a single IPv4 address. It can be assumed that this technology will be used mainly where IPv6-only networks and clients (ie. Mobile handsets, IPv6 only wireless, etc…) need access to the IPv4 internet and its services. The big difference with stateful NAT64 is the elimination of the algorithmic binding between the IPv6 address and the IPv4 address. In exchange, state is created in the NAT64 device for every flow. Additionally, NAT64 only supports IPv6-initiated flows. Unlike stateless NAT64, stateful NAT64 does `not’ consume a single IPv4 address for each IPv6 device that wants to communicate to the IPv4 Internet. More practically this means that many IPv6-only users consume only single IPv4 address in similar manner as IPv4-to-IPv4 network address and port translation works. This works very well if the connectivity request is initiated from the IPv6 towards the IPv4 Internet. If an IPv4-only device wants to speak to an IPv6-only server for example, manual configuration of the translation slot will be required, making this mechanism less attractive to provide IPv6 services towards the IPv4 Internet. DNS64 is usually also necessary with a stateful NAT64, and works the same with both stateless and stateful NAT64
Stateless NAT64-Stateless translation between IPv4 and IPv6 RFC6145 (IP/ICMP Translation Algorithm) replaces RFC2765 (Stateless IP/ICMP Translation Algorithm (SIIT)) and provides a stateless mechanism to translate a IPv4 header into an IPv6 header and vice versa. Due to the stateless character this mechanism is very effective and highly fail safe because more as a single-or multiple translators in parallel can be deployed and work all in parallel without a need to synchronize between the translation devices. The key to the stateless translation is in the fact that the IPv4 address is directly embedded in the IPv6 address. A limitation of stateless NAT64 translation is that it directly translates only the IPv4 options that have direct IPv6 counterparts, and that it does not translate any IPv6 extension headers beyond the fragmentation extension header; however, these limitations are not significant in practice. With a stateless NAT64, a specific IPv6 address range will represent IPv4 systems within the IPv6 world. This range needs to be manually configured on the translation device. Within the IPv4 world all the IPv6 systems have directly correlated IPv4 addresses that can be algorithmically mapped to a subset of the service provider’s IPv4 addresses. By means of this direct mapping algorithm there is no need to keep state for any translation slot between IPv4 and IPv6. This mapping algorithm requires the IPv6 hosts be assigned specific IPv6 addresses, using manual configuration or DHCPv6. Stateless NAT64 will work very successful as proven in some of the largest networks, however it suffers from some an important side-effect: Stateless NAT64 translation will give an IPv6-only host access to the IPv4 world and vice versa, however it consumes an IPv4 address for each IPv6-only device that desires translation — exactly the same as a dual-stack deployment. Consequentially, stateless NAT64 is no solution to address the ongoing IPv4 address depletion. Stateless NAT64 is a good tool to provide Internet servers with an accessible IP address for both IPv4 and IPv6 on the global Internet. To aggregate many IPv6 users into a single IPv4 address, stateful NAT64 is required. NAT64 are usually deployed in conjunction with a DNS64. This functions similar to, but different than, DNS-ALG that was part of NAT-PT. DNS64 is not an ALG; instead, packets are sent directly to and received from the DNS64’s IP address. DNS64 can also work with DNSSEC (whereas DNS-ALG could not).
QUESTION 52
Which type of DNS record is used for IPv6 forward lookups?
A. A records
B. AAAA records
C. PTR records
D. MX records

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 53

What is enabled by default on Cisco IOS-XR routers and cannot be disabled?
A. SSH server
B. Multicast routing
C. IPv4 and IPv6 CEF
D. IPv6 routing
E. CDP
F. BFD “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 34 Cisco 642-885 Exam

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Before using the BGP policy accounting feature, you must enable BGP on the router (CEF is enabled by
default).

QUESTION 54
The IPv6 2002::/16 prefix is used in which kind of implementations?
A. 6RD
B. 6to4
C. NAT64
D. IPv6 Multicast
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 55
When implementing IP SLA icmp-echo probes on Cisco IOS-XE routers, which two options are available for IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. flow-label
B. hop-limit
C. DSCP
D. traffic-class
E. TOS

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
With IPv6 multicast, which feature can be used as a replacement method for static RP configuration?
A. PIM Snooping
B. MLD
C. MLD Snooping
D. Embedded RP
E. DHCPv6

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
Which additional feature is provided using MLDv2 that is not available in MLDv1?
A. Multicast Address Specific Queries
B. Source filtering
C. Done messages
D. Report messages

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
. PIM-SSM is made possible by IGMPv3 and MLDv2. Hosts can now indicate interest in specific sources using IGMPv3 and MLDv2. SSM does not require a rendezvous point (RP) to operate.
QUESTION 58
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 35 Cisco 642-885 Exam
When implementing high-availability stateful switchover BGP routing, in which situation would Cisco NSR be required?
A. On the PE routers connecting to the CE routers which are not NSF aware or are not NSF capable
B. On the PE routers connecting to the CE routers which support graceful restart
C. On the PE routers connecting to the CE routers which are incapable of performing stateful switchover operations because the CE routers are only NSF aware but not NSF capable
D. On the PE routers connecting to the CE routers which are incapable of performing stateful switchover operations because the CE routers are only NSF capable but not NSF aware
E. On the service provider core P routers which are also NSF aware
F. On the service provider core P routers which are also NSF capable
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation
QUESTION 59
What are three BGP configuration characteristics of a multihomed customer that is connected to multiple service providers? (Choose three.)
A. The multihomed customer can use local preference to influence the return traffic from the service providers
B. The multihomed customer announces its assigned IP address space to its service providers through BGP
C. The multihomed customer has to decide whether to perform load sharing or use a primary/backup implementation
D. The multihomed customer must use private AS number
E. The multihomed customer configures outbound route filters to prevent itself from becoming a transit AS

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 60
Refer to the EBGP configuration on a PE IOS-XR router exhibit. After the EBGP configuration, no routes
are accepted from the EBGP peer, nor are any routes advertised to the EBGP peer.
What could be the problem?
A. The update-source neighbor configuration command must also be configured
B. The next-hop-self neighbor configuration command must also be configured
C. EBGP neighbors must have an inbound and outbound route policy configured
D. An access list is blocking IP protocol 179 packets between the two EBGP peers
E. The maximum-prefix neighbor configuration command must also be configured

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 36 Cisco 642-885 Exam
QUESTION 61
Refer to the exhibit. The following multicast IP addresses map to which multicast MAC address?

A. 01:00:5E:8A:00:01
B. 01:00:5E:0A:00:01
C. 01:00:5E:7A:00:01
D. 01:00:5E:05:00:01

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 62
A junior network engineer has just configured a new IBGP peering between two Cisco ASR9K PE routers in the network using the loopback interface of the router, but the IBGP neighborship is not able to be established. Which two verification steps will be helpful in troubleshooting this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the network command under router BGP is configured correct on each router for announcing the router’s loopback interface in BGP
B. Verify that the ibgp-multihop command under the BGP neighbor is configured correctly on each router “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 37 Cisco 642-885 Exam
C. Verify that the loopback interfaces are reachable over the IGP
D. Verify that the update-source loopback command under the BGP neighbor is configured correctly on each router
E. Verify that the ttl-security command under the BGP neighbor is configured correctly on each router to enable the router to send the BGP packets using a proper TTL value
F. Verify that the UDP port 179 traffic is not being blocked by an ACL or firewall between the two IBGP peers

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 63
Refer to the exhibit for the outputs from an ASR9K router. Why did the ping fail?

A. The ping command is missing the ipv6 option: ping ipv6 2001:db8:10:1:10::1/128
B. There is a problem with the IS-IS configurations
C. The fe80::eab7:48ff:fe2c:a180 next-hop is not reachable
D. The prefix length should be removed from the IPv6 address in the ping command: ping ipv6 2001:db8:10:1:10::1
E. IPv6 is not enabled on the Gi0/0/0/0 interface
F. The IPv6 neighbor discovery protocol is not enabled on the Gi0/0/0/0 interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 38 Cisco 642-885 Exam
QUESTION 64
Which multicast routing protocol supports dense mode, sparse mode and bidirectional mode?
A. DVMRP
B. MOSPF
C. PIM
D. MP-BGP
E. MSDP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 65
When configuring BFD, the multiplier configuration option is used to determine which value?
A. The retry interval
B. The number of BFD packets that can be lost before the BFD peer is declared “down”
C. The minimum interval between packets accepted from the BFD peers
D. The number of BFD echo packets that will be originated by the router
E. The number of routing protocols that will use BFD for fast peer failure detection

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 66
After configuring the tunnel interface as shown in the exhibit, no IPv6 traffic is passed over the IPv4 network. Which additional configuration is required to pass the IPv6 traffic over the IPv4 network?

A. Configure an IPv4 address on the tunnel0 interface
B. Configure an IPv6 static route to send the required IPv6 traffic over the tunnel0 interface
C. The tunnel destination should be pointing to an IPv6 address instead of an IPv4 address
D. The tunnel0 interface IPv6 address must use the 2002:://16 prefix

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 67
Refer to the Cisco IOS configuration exhibit. Which statement is correct?

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 39 Cisco 642-885 Exam
A. This configuration is typically configured on the boundary routers within a PIM SM domain to filter out malicious candidate-RP-announce and candidate-RP-discovery packets
B. This configuration is typically configured on the RPs within a PIM-SM domain to restrict the candidate-RP-announce packets
C. This configuration is typically configured on the mapping agents within a PIM-SM domain to restrict the candidate-RP-discovery packets
D. This configuration is typically configured on the MSDP peering routers within a PIM-SM domain to filter out malicious MSDP SA packets

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 68

Given the IPv6 address of 2001:0DB8::1:800:200E:88AA, what will be its corresponding the solicited-node multicast address?
A. FF01::1:200E:88AA
B. FF01::1:FF0E:88AA
C. FF01:0DB8::1:800:200E:88AA
D. FF02::1:FF0E:88AA
E. FF02::1:200E:88AA
F. FF02:0DB8::1:800:200E:88AA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IPv6 nodes (hosts and routers) are required to join (receive packets destined for) the following multicast groups:
.
All-nodes multicast group FF02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 (scope is link-local)

.
Solicited-node multicast group FF02:0:0:0:0:1:FF00:0000/104 for each of its assigned unicast and anycast addresses
IPv6 routers must also join the all-routers multicast group FF02:0:0:0:0:0:0:2 (scope is link-local).
The solicited-node multicast address is a multicast group that corresponds to an IPv6 unicast or anycast address. IPv6 nodes must join the associated solicited-node multicast group for every unicast and anycast address to which it is assigned. The IPv6 solicited-node multicast address has the prefix FF02:0:0:0:0:1:FF00:0000/104 concatenated with the 24 low-order bits of a corresponding IPv6 unicast or anycast address (see Figure 2). For example, the solicited-node multicast address corresponding to the IPv6 address 2037::01:800:200E:8C6C is FF02::1:FF0E:8C6C. Solicited-node addresses are used in neighbor solicitation messages
QUESTION 69
With PIM-SM operations, which four pieces of information are maintained in the multicast routing table for each (*,G) or (S,G) entry? (Choose four.)
A. RPF Neighbor
B. RP Set
C. Incoming Interface
D. OIL
E. DF priority
F. PIM SM state flags

Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: The following is sample output from the show ip mroute command for a router operating in sparse mode: show ip mroute IP Multicast Routing Table Flags: D – Dense, S – Sparse, C – Connected, L – Local, P – Pruned R – RP-bit set, F – Register flag, T – SPT-bit set Timers: Uptime/Expires Interface state: Interface, Next-Hop, State/Mode (*, 224.0.255.3), uptime 5:29:15, RP is 198.92.37.2, flags: SC Incoming interface: Tunnel0, RPF neighbor 10.3.35.1, Dvmrp Outgoing interface list: Ethernet0, Forward/Sparse, 5:29:15/0:02:57 (198.92.46.0/24, 224.0.255.3), uptime 5:29:15, expires 0:02:59, flags: C Incoming interface: Tunnel0, RPF neighbor 10.3.35.1 Outgoing interface list: Ethernet0, Forward/Sparse, 5:29:15/0:02:57
QUESTION 70
What is one of the configuration errors within an AS that can stop a Cisco IOS-XR router from announcing certain prefixes to its EBGP peers?
A. Some prefixes were mistagged with the no-export BGP community
B. Some prefixes were set with an MED of 0
C. The outbound BGP route policy only has set actions defined without any pass actions defined
D. The inbound BGP route policy only has set actions defined without any pass actions defined

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 40 Cisco 642-885 Exam
QUESTION 71
Which three statements are correct regarding PIM-SM? (Choose three.)
A. There are three ways to configure the RP: Static RP, Auto-RP, or BSR
B. PIM-SM only uses the RP rooted shared tree and has no option to switch over to the shortest path tree
C. Different RPs can be configured for different multicast groups to increase RP scalability
D. Candidate RPs and RP mapping agents are configured to enable Auto-RP
E. PIM-SM uses the implicit join model

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 72
Which of the following is a feature added in IGMPv3?
A. Support for source filtering
B. Support for Host Membership Report and a Leave Group message
C. Uses a new variation of the Host Membership Query called the Group-Specific Host Membership Query
D. Uses an election process to determine the querying router on the LAN
E. Uses an election process to determine the designated router on the LAN
F. IPv6 support

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
.IGMP Version 3 permits joins and leaves for certain source and group pairs instead of requesting traffic from all sources in the multicast group.
MLDv2 provides the same functionality (under IPv6) as IGMP Version 3.
QUESTION 73
Which types of multicast distribution tree can PIM-SM use?
A. Only shared tree rooted at the source
B. Only shared tree rooted at the RP
C. Only shortest path tree rooted at the RP
D. Shared tree rooted at the source and shortest path tree switchover
E. Shared tree rooted at the RP and shortest path tree switchover
F. Shared tree rooted at the first-hop router and shortest path tree rooted at the RP

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 74
Which multicast routing protocol is most optimal for supporting many-to-many multicast applications?
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-BIDIR
C. MP-BGP
D. DVMRP
E. MSDP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: PIM-Bidirectional Operations
PIM Bidirectional (BIDIR) has one shared tree from sources to RP and from RP to receivers. This is unlike the PIM-SM, which is unidirectional by nature with multiple source trees – one per (S,G) or a shared tree from receiver to RP and multiple SG trees from RP to sources. Benefits of PIM BIDIR are as follows:
.
As many sources for the same group use one and only state (*, G), only minimal states are required in each router.

.
No data triggered events.

.
Rendezvous Point (RP) router not required. The RP address only needs to be a routable address and need not exist on a physical device.
QUESTION 75
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 41 Cisco 642-885 Exam
Which statement is correct regarding using the TTL threshold to define the delivery boundaries of multicast traffic?
A. If a packet TTL is less than the specified TTL threshold, the packet is forwarded out of the interface
B. If a packet TTL is greater or equal to the specified TTL threshold, the packet is forwarded out of the interface
C. If a packet TTL is equal to the specified TTL threshold, the packet is dropped
D. When a multicast packet arrives, the TTL threshold value is decremented by 1. If the resulting TTL threshold value is greater than or equal to 0, the packet is dropped
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 76
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are correct regarding the Cisco IOS-XR configuration? (Choose three.)

A. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP announcement messages to the 224.0.1.40 group
B. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP discovery messages to the 224.0.1.39 group
C. This router is the RP mapping agent only for the 224.11.11.11 and 224.99.99.99 multicast groups
D. This router is a candidate PIM-SM RP for the 224.99.99.99 multicast group
E. This router is a candidate PIM-BIDIR RP for the 224.11.11.11 multicast group
F. IGMPv3 is enabled on all interfaces
G. Other routers will recognize this router as the RP for all multicast groups with this router loopback 0 IP address

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 77
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 42 Cisco 642-885 Exam
Which statement is correct regarding MP-BGP?
A. MP-BGP can indicate whether an advertised prefix (NLRI) is to be used for unicast routing, multicast RPF checks or for both using different SAFIs.
B. MP-BGP uses a single BGP table to maintain all the unicast prefixes for unicast forwarding and all the unicast prefixes for RPF checks.
C. MP-BGP can be used to propagate multicast state information, which eliminates the need to use PIM for building the multicast distribution trees.
D. MP-BGP enables BGP to carry IP multicast routes used by MSDP to build the multicast distribution trees.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Protocol Independent Multicast

Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) is a routing protocol designed to send and receive multicast routing updates. Proper operation of multicast depends on knowing the unicast paths towards a source or an RP. PIM relies on unicast routing protocols to derive this reverse-path forwarding (RPF) information. As the name PIM implies, it functions independently of the unicast protocols being used. PIM relies on the Routing Information Base (RIB) for RPF information. If the multicast subsequent address family identifier (SAFI) is configured for Border Gateway Protocol (BGP), or if multicast intact is configured, a separate multicast unicast RIB is created and populated with the BGP multicast SAFI routes, the intact information, and any IGP information in the unicast RIB. Otherwise, PIM gets information directly from the unicast SAFI RIB. Both multicast unicast and unicast databases are outside of the scope of PIM. The Cisco IOS XR implementation of PIM is based on RFC 4601 Protocol Independent Multicast – Sparse Mode (PIM-SM): Protocol Specification. For more information, see RFC 4601 and the Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM): Motivation and Architecture Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) Internet draft
QUESTION 78
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Download this chapter Implementing Tunnels Download the complete book Interface and Hardware Component Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release 3S (PDF – 1 MB) Feedback
Contents Implementing Tunnels Finding Feature Information Restrictions for Implementing Tunnels Information About Implementing Tunnels Tunneling Versus Encapsulation Tunnel ToS Generic Routing Encapsulation GRE Tunnel IP Source and Destination VRF Membership GRE IPv4 Tunnel Support for IPv6 Traffic EoMPLS over GRE Provider Edge to Provider Edge Generic Routing EncapsulationTunnels Provider to Provider Generic Routing Encapsulation Tunnels Provider Edge to Provider Generic Routing Encapsulation Tunnels Features Specific to Generic Routing Encapsulation Features Specific to Ethernet over MPLS Features Specific to Multiprotocol Label Switching Virtual Private Network Overlay Tunnels for IPv6 IPv6 Manually Configured Tunnels Automatic 6to4 Tunnels ISATAP Tunnels Path MTU Discovery QoS Options for Tunnels How to Implement Tunnels Determining the Tunnel Type Configuring an IPv4 GRE Tunnel GRE Tunnel Keepalive What to Do Next Configuring GRE on IPv6 Tunnels What to Do Next Configuring GRE Tunnel IP Source and Destination VRF Membership What to Do Next Manually Configuring IPv6 Tunnels What to Do Next Configuring 6to4 Tunnels What to Do Next Configuring ISATAP Tunnels Verifying Tunnel Configuration and Operation Configuration Examples for Implementing Tunnels Example: Configuring a GRE IPv4 Tunnel Example: Configuring GRE on IPv6 Tunnels Example: Configuring GRE Tunnel IP Source and Destination VRF Membership Example: Configuring EoMPLS over GRE Example: Manually Configuring IPv6 Tunnels Example: Configuring 6to4 Tunnels Example: Configuring ISATAP Tunnels Configuring QoS Options on Tunnel Interfaces Examples Policing Example Additional References Feature Information for Implementing Tunnels
Implementing Tunnels
Last Updated: September 17, 2012
This module describes the various types of tunneling techniques. Configuration details and examples are provided for the tunnel types that use physical or virtual interfaces. Many tunneling techniques are implemented using technology-specific commands, and links are provided to the appropriate technology modules. Tunneling provides a way to encapsulate arbitrary packets inside a transport protocol. Tunnels are implemented as virtual interfaces to provide a simple interface for configuration purposes. The tunnel interface is not tied to specific “passenger” or “transport” protocols, but rather is an architecture to provide the services necessary to implement any standard point-to-point encapsulation scheme.

Note
Cisco ASR 1000 Series Aggregation Services Routers support VPN routing and forwarding (VRF)-aware generic routing encapsulation (GRE) tunnel keepalive features. Finding Feature Information Restrictions for Implementing Tunnels Information About Implementing Tunnels How to Implement Tunnels Configuration Examples for Implementing Tunnels Additional References Feature Information for Implementing Tunnels

Finding Feature Information
Your software release may not support all the features documented in this module. For the latest caveats and feature information, see Bug Search Tool and the release notes for your platform and software release. To find information about the features documented in this module, and to see a list of the releases in which each feature is supported, see the feature information table at the end of this module. Use Cisco Feature Navigator to find information about platform support and Cisco software image support. To access Cisco Feature Navigator, go to www.cisco.com/go/cfn. An account on Cisco.com is not required.

Restrictions for Implementing Tunnels
It is important to allow the tunnel protocol to pass through a firewall and access control list (ACL) check. Multiple point-to-point tunnels can saturate the physical link with routing information if the bandwidth is not
configured correctly on a tunnel interface.
A tunnel looks like a single hop link, and routing protocols may prefer a tunnel over a multihop physical
path. The tunnel, despite looking like a single hop link, may traverse a slower path than a multihop link. A
tunnel is as robust and fast, or as unreliable and slow, as the links that it actually traverses. Routing
protocols that make their decisions based only on hop counts will often prefer a tunnel over a set of
physical links. A tunnel might appear to be a one-hop, point-to-point link and have the lowest-cost path, but
the tunnel may actually cost more in terms of latency when compared to an alternative physical topology.
For example, in the topology shown in the figure below, packets from Host 1 will appear to travel across
networks w, t, and z to get to Host 2 instead of taking the path w, x, y, and z because the tunnel hop count
appears shorter. In fact, the packets going through the tunnel will still be traveling across Router A, B, and
C, but they must also travel to Router D before coming back to Router C.

Figure 1
Tunnel Precautions: Hop Counts

A tunnel may have a recursive routing problem if routing is not configured accurately. The best path to a
tunnel destination is via the tunnel itself; therefore recursive routing causes the tunnel interface to flap. To
avoid recursive routing problems, keep the control-plane routing separate from the tunnel routing by using
the following methods:
Use a different autonomous system number or tag.
Use a different routing protocol.
Ensure that static routes are used to override the first hop (watch for routing loops).
The following error is displayed when there is recursive routing to a tunnel destination:

%TUN-RECURDOWN Interface Tunnel 0 temporarily disabled due to recursive routing

Information About Implementing Tunnels
Tunneling Versus Encapsulation Tunnel ToS Generic Routing Encapsulation EoMPLS over GRE Overlay Tunnels for IPv6 IPv6 Manually Configured Tunnels Automatic 6to4 Tunnels ISATAP Tunnels Path MTU Discovery QoS Options for Tunnels

Tunneling Versus Encapsulation
To understand how tunnels work, you must be able to distinguish between concepts of encapsulation and
tunneling. Encapsulation is the process of adding headers to data at each layer of a particular protocol
stack. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model describes the functions of a network. To
send a data packet from one host (for example, a PC) to another on a network, encapsulation is used to
add a header in front of the data packet at each layer of the protocol stack in descending order. The
header must contain a data field that indicates the type of data encapsulated at the layer immediately
above the current layer. As the packet ascends the protocol stack on the receiving side of the network,
each encapsulation header is removed in reverse order.
Tunneling encapsulates data packets from one protocol within a different protocol and transports the
packets on a foreign network. Unlike encapsulation, tunneling allows a lower-layer protocol and a same-
layer protocol to be carried through the tunnel. A tunnel interface is a virtual (or logical) interface. Tunneling
consists of three main components:

Passenger protocol–The protocol that you are encapsulating. For example, IPv4 and IPv6 protocols.
Carrier protocol–The protocol that encapsulates. For example, generic routing encapsulation (GRE) and
Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS).
Transport protocol–The protocol that carries the encapsulated protocol. The main transport protocol is IP.
The figure below illustrates IP tunneling terminology and concepts:

Figure 2
IP Tunneling Terminology and Concepts
Tunnel ToS
Tunnel type of service (ToS) allows you to tunnel network traffic and group all packets in the same ToS byte value. The ToS byte values and Time-to-Live (TTL) hop-count value can be set in the encapsulating IP header of tunnel packets for an IP tunnel interface on a router. Tunnel ToS feature is supported for Cisco Express Forwarding (formerly known as CEF), fast switching, and process switching. The ToS and TTL byte values are defined in RFC 791. RFC 2474, and RFC 2780 obsolete the use of the ToS byte as defined in RFC 791. RFC 791 specifies that bits 6 and 7 of the ToS byte (the first two least significant bits) are reserved for future use and should be set to 0. For Cisco IOS XE Release 2.1, the Tunnel ToS feature does not conform to this standard and allows you to use the whole ToS byte value, including bits 6 and 7, and to decide to which RFC standard the ToS byte of your packets should conform.

Generic Routing Encapsulation
GRE is defined in RFC 2784. GRE is a carrier protocol that can be used with many different underlying transport protocols and can carry many passenger protocols. RFC 2784 also covers the use of GRE with IPv4 as the transport protocol and the passenger protocol. Cisco software supports GRE as the carrier protocol with many combinations of passenger and transport protocols. GRE tunnels are described in the following sections: GRE Tunnel IP Source and Destination VRF Membership GRE IPv4 Tunnel Support for IPv6 Traffic

GRE Tunnel IP Source and Destination VRF Membership
The GRE Tunnel IP Source and Destination VRF Membership feature allows you to configure the source and destination of a tunnel to belong to any VPN routing and forwarding (VRFs) tables. A VRF table stores routing data for each VPN. The VRF table defines the VPN membership of a customer site that is attached to the network access server (NAS). Each VRF table comprises an IP routing table, a derived Cisco Express Forwarding table, and guidelines and routing protocol parameters that control the information that is included in the routing table. Prior to Cisco IOS XE Release 2.2, GRE IP tunnels required the IP tunnel destination to be in the global routing table. The implementation of this feature allows you to configure a tunnel source and destination to belong to any VRF. As with existing GRE tunnels, the tunnel becomes disabled if no route to the tunnel destination is defined.

GRE IPv4 Tunnel Support for IPv6 Traffic
IPv6 traffic can be carried over IPv4 GRE tunnels by using the standard GRE tunneling technique to provide the services necessary to implement a standard point-to-point encapsulation scheme. GRE tunnels are links between two points, with a separate tunnel for each point. GRE tunnels are not tied to a specific passenger or transport protocol, but in case of IPv6 traffic, IPv6 is the passenger protocol, GRE is the carrier protocol, and IPv4 is the transport protocol. The primary use of GRE tunnels is to provide a stable connection and secure communication between two edge devices or between an edge device and an end system. The edge device and the end system must have a dual-stack implementation. GRE has a protocol field that identifies the passenger protocol. GRE tunnels allow intermediate system to intermediate system (IS-IS) or IPv6 to be specified as the passenger protocol, thereby allowing both IS-IS and IPv6 traffic to run over the same tunnel. If GRE does not have a protocol field, it becomes impossible to distinguish whether the tunnel is carrying IS-IS or IPv6 packets.

EoMPLS over GRE
Ethernet over MPLS (EoMPLS) is a tunneling mechanism that allows you to tunnel Layer 2 traffic through a Layer 3 MPLS network. EoMPLS is also known as Layer 2 tunneling. EoMPLS effectively facilitates Layer 2 extension over long distances. EoMPLS over GRE helps you to create the GRE tunnel as hardware-based switched, and encapsulates EoMPLS frames within the GRE tunnel. The GRE connection is established between the two core routers, and then the MPLS label switched path (LSP) is tunneled over. GRE encapsulation is used to define a packet that has header information added to it prior to being forwarded. De-encapsulation is the process of removing the additional header information when the packet reaches the destination tunnel endpoint. When a packet is forwarded through a GRE tunnel, two new headers are added to the front of the packet and hence the context of the new payload changes. After encapsulation, what was originally the data payload and separate IP header are now known as the GRE payload. A GRE header is added to the packet to provide information on the protocol type and the recalculated checksum. A new IP header is also added to the front of the GRE header. This IP header contains the destination IP address of the tunnel. The GRE header is added to packets such as IP, Layer 2 VPN, and Layer 3 VPN before the header enters into the tunnel. All routers along the path that receives the encapsulated packet use the new IP header to determine how the packet can reach the tunnel endpoint. In IP forwarding, on reaching the tunnel destination endpoint, the new IP header and the GRE header are removed from the packet and the original IP header is used to forward the packet to the final destination. The EoMPLS over GRE feature removes the new IP header and GRE header from the packet at the tunnel destination, and the MPLS label is used to forward the packet to the appropriate Layer 2 attachment circuit or Layer 3 VRF. The scenarios in the following sections describe the L2VPN and L3VPN over GRE deployment on provider edge (PE) or provider (P) routers: Provider Edge to Provider Edge Generic Routing EncapsulationTunnels Provider to Provider Generic Routing Encapsulation Tunnels Provider Edge to Provider Generic Routing Encapsulation Tunnels Features Specific to Generic Routing Encapsulation Features Specific to Ethernet over MPLS Features Specific to Multiprotocol Label Switching Virtual Private Network

Provider Edge to Provider Edge Generic Routing EncapsulationTunnels
In the Provider Edge to Provider Edge (PE) GRE tunnels scenario, a customer does not transition any part of the core to MPLS but prefers to offer EoMPLS and basic MPLS VPN services. Therefore, GRE tunneling of MPLS traffic is done between PEs.

Provider to Provider Generic Routing Encapsulation Tunnels
In the Provider to Provider (P) GRE tunnels scenario, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is enabled between Provider Edge (PE ) and P routers but the network core can either have non-MPLS aware routers or IP encryption boxes. In this scenario, GRE tunneling of the MPLS labeled packets is done between P routers.

Provider Edge to Provider Generic Routing Encapsulation Tunnels
In a Provider Edge to Provider GRE tunnels scenario, a network has MPLS-aware P to P nodes. GRE tunneling is done between a PE to P non-MPLS network segment.

Features Specific to Generic Routing Encapsulation
You should understand the following configurations and information for a deployment scenario:

Tunnel endpoints can be loopbacks or physical interfaces.
Configurable tunnel keepalive timer parameters per endpoint and a syslog message must be generated
when the keepalive timer expires.
Bidirectional forwarding detection (BFD) is supported for tunnel failures and for the Interior Gateway
Protocol (IGP) that use tunnels.
IGP load sharing across a GRE tunnel is supported.
IGP redundancy across a GRE tunnel is supported.
Fragmentation across a GRE tunnel is supported.
Ability to pass jumbo frames is supported.
All IGP control plane traffic is supported.
IP ToS preservation across tunnels is supported.
A tunnel should be independent of the endpoint physical interface type; for example, ATM, Gigabit, Packet
over SONET (POS), and TenGigabit.
Up to 100 GRE tunnels are supported.
Features Specific to Ethernet over MPLS
Any Transport over MPLS (AToM) sequencing.
IGP load sharing and redundancy.
Port mode Ethernet over MPLS (EoMPLS).
Pseudowire redundancy.
Support for up to to 200 EoMPLS virtual circuits (VCs).
Tunnel selection and the ability to map a specific pseudowire to a GRE tunnel.
VLAN mode EoMPLS.

Features Specific to Multiprotocol Label Switching Virtual Private Network
Support for the PE role with IPv4 VRF.
Support for all PE to customer edge (CE) protocols.
Load sharing through multiple tunnels and also equal cost IGP paths with a single tunnel.
Support for redundancy through unequal cost IGP paths with a single tunnel.
Support for the IP precedence value being copied onto the expression (EXP) bits field of the Multiprotocol
Label Switching (MPLS) label and then onto the precedence bits on the outer IPv4 ToS field of the generic
routing encapsulation (GRE) packet.
See the section, “Example: Configuring EoMPLS over GRE” for a sample configuration sequence of
EoMPLS over GRE. For more details on EoMPLS over GRE, see the Deploying and Configuring MPLS
Virtual Private Networks In IP Tunnel Environments document.
Overlay Tunnels for IPv6
The figure below illustrates how overlay tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets for delivery across an IPv4 infrastructure (a core network or the Internet). By using overlay tunnels, you can communicate with isolated IPv6 networks without upgrading the IPv4 infrastructure between them. Overlay tunnels can be configured between border routers or between a border router and a host; however, both tunnel endpoints must support, IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks. IPv6 supports the following types of overlay tunneling mechanisms:
6to4 GRE Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP) IPv4-compatible Manual
Figure 3 Overlay Tunnels

Note
If the basic IPv4 packet header does not have optional fields, overlay tunnels can reduce the maximum transmission unit (MTU) of an interface by 20 octets. A network that uses overlay tunnels is difficult to troubleshoot. Therefore, overlay tunnels that connect isolated IPv6 networks should not be considered as the final IPv6 network architecture. The use of overlay tunnels is considered as a transition technique for a network that supports either both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks or just the IPv6 protocol stack. Consult the table below to determine which type of tunnel you want to configure to carry IPv6 packets over an IPv4 network.
Table 1 Suggested Usage of Tunnel Types to Carry IPv6 Packets over an IPv4 Network

Tunneling Type Suggested Usage Usage Notes
6to4
Point-to-multipoint tunnels that can be used to connect isolated IPv6 sites.
Sites use addresses that begin with the 2002::/16 prefix.
GRE/IPv4
Simple point-to-point tunnels that can be used within a site or between sites.
Tunnels can carry IPv6, Connectionless Network ServiceCLNS, and many other types of packets.
ISATAP
Point-to-multipoint tunnels that can be used to connect systems within a site.
Sites can use any IPv6 unicast addresses.
Manual
Simple point-to-point tunnels that can be used within a site or between sites.
Tunnels can carry IPv6 packets only.
Individual tunnel types are discussed in detail in the following concepts, and we recommend that you
review and understand the information on the specific tunnel type that you want to implement. Consult the
table below for a summary of the tunnel configuration parameters that you may find useful.

Table 2 Overlay Tunnel Configuration Parameters by Tunneling Type

Overlay Tunneling Type Overlay Tunnel Configuration Parameter
Tunnel Mode Tunnel Source Tunnel Destination Interface Prefix/Address 6to4 ipv6ip 6to4 An IPv4 address or a reference to an interface on which IPv4 is configured. Not required. These are all point-to-multipoint tunneling types. The IPv4 destination address is calculated, on a per-packet basis, from the IPv6 destination. An IPv6 address. The prefix must embed the tunnel source IPv4 address. GRE/IPv4 gre ip An IPv4 address. An IPv6 address. ISATAP ipv6ip isatap Not required. These are all point-to-multipoint tunneling types. The IPv4 destination address is calculated on a per-packet basis from the IPv6 destination. An IPv6 prefix in modified eui-64 format. The IPv6 address is generated from the prefix and the tunnel source IPv4 address. Manual ipv6ip An IPv4 address. An IPv6 address.

IPv6 Manually Configured Tunnels
A manually configured tunnel is equivalent to a permanent link between two IPv6 domains over an IPv4 backbone. The primary use of a manually configured tunnel is to stabilize connections that require secure communication between two edge routers, or between an end system and an edge router. The manual configuration tunnel also stabilizes connection between remote IPv6 networks. An IPv6 address is manually configured on a tunnel interface. Manually configured IPv4 addresses are assigned to the tunnel source and destination. The host or router at each end of a configured tunnel must support both the IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks. Manually configured tunnels can be configured between border routers or between a border router and a host. Cisco Express Forwarding switching can be used for manually configured IPv6 tunnels. Switching can be disabled if process switching is required.

Automatic 6to4 Tunnels
An automatic 6to4 tunnel allows isolated IPv6 domains to be connected over an IPv4 network to remote IPv6 networks. The key difference between automatic 6to4 tunnels and manually configured tunnels is that the tunnel is not point-to-point; it is point-to-multipoint. In automatic 6to4 tunnels, routers are not configured in pairs because they treat the IPv4 infrastructure as a virtual nonbroadcast multiaccess (NBMA) links. The IPv4 address embedded in the IPv6 address is used to find the other end of the automatic tunnel. An automatic 6to4 tunnel may be configured on a border router in an isolated IPv6 network, which creates a tunnel on a per-packet basis on a border router in another IPv6 network over an IPv4 infrastructure. The tunnel destination is determined by the IPv4 address of the border router extracted from the IPv6 address
that starts with the prefix 2002::/16, where the format is 2002:border-router-IPv4-address ::/48.The embedded IPv4 addresses are 16 bits and can be used to number networks within the site. The border router at each end of a 6to4 tunnel must support both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks. 6to4 tunnels are configured between border routers or between a border router and a host. The simplest deployment scenario for 6to4 tunnels is to interconnect multiple IPv6 sites, each of which has at least one connection to a shared IPv4 network. This IPv4 network could either be the Internet or a corporate backbone. The key requirement is that each site have a globally unique IPv4 address; the Cisco software uses this address to construct a globally unique 6to4/48 IPv6 prefix. A tunnel with appropriate entries in a Domain Name System (DNS) that maps hostnames and IP addresses for both IPv4 and IPv6 domains, allows the applications to choose the required address IPv6 traffic can be carried over IPv4 GRE tunnels by using the standard GRE tunneling technique to provide the services necessary to implement a standard point-to-point encapsulation scheme. GRE tunnels are links between two points, with a separate tunnel for each point. GRE tunnels are not tied to a specific passenger or transport protocol, but in case of IPv6 traffic, IPv6 is the passenger protocol, GRE is the carrier protocol, and IPv4 is the transport protocol. The primary use of GRE tunnels is to provide a stable connection and secure communication between two edge devices or between an edge device and an end system. The edge device and the end system must have a dual-stack implementation. GRE has a protocol field that identifies the passenger protocol. GRE tunnels allow intermediate system to intermediate system (IS-IS) or IPv6 to be specified as the passenger protocol, thereby allowing both IS-IS and IPv6 traffic to run over the same tunnel. If GRE does not have a protocol field, it becomes impossible to distinguish whether the tunnel is carrying IS-IS or IPv6 packets.
QUESTION 79
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
i) Dense Mode Flood-and-Prune Protocols (DVMRP / MOSPF / PIM-DM)

In dense mode protocols, all routers in the network are aware of all trees, their sources and receivers. Protocols such as DVMRP and PIM dense mode flood ※active source§ information across the whole network and build trees by creating ※Prune State§ in parts of the topology where traffic for a specific tree is unwanted. They are also called flood-and-prune protocols. In MOSPF, information about receivers is flooded throughout the network to support the building of trees. Dense mode protocols are undesirable because every tree built in some part of the network will always cause resource utilization (with convergence impact) on all routers in the network (or within the administrative scope, if configured). We will not be discussing these protocols in the rest of this paper.

ii) Sparse Mode Explicit Join Protocols (PIM-SM/PIM-BiDir)
With sparse mode explicit join protocols we do not create a group-specific forwarding state in the network unless a receiver has sent an explicit IGMP/MLD membership report (or ※join§) for a group. This variant of ASM is known to scale well and is the multicast paradigm we will mainly be discussing. This is the basis for PIM-Sparse Mode, which most multicast deployments have used to this point. This is also the basis for PIM-BiDir, which will be increasingly deployed for MANY (sources) TO MANY (receivers) applications. These protocols are called sparse mode because they efficiently support IP multicast delivery trees with a ※sparse§ receiver population 每 creating control plane state only on routers in the path between sources and receivers, and in PIM-SM/BiDir, the Rendezvous Point (RP). They never create state in other parts of the network. State in a router is only built explicitly when it receives a join from a downstream router or receiver, hence the name ※explicit join protocols§. Both PIM-SM and PIM-BiDir employ ※SHARED TREES§, which allow traffic from any source to be forwarded to a receiver. The forwarding state on a shared tree is referred to as (*,G) forwarding state, where the * is a wild card for ANY SOURCE. Additionally, PIM-SM supports the creation of forwarding state that relates to traffic from a specific source. These are known as SOURCE TREES, and the associated state is referred to as (S,G) forwarding state SSM is the model used when the receiver (or some proxy) sends (S,G) ※joins§ to indicate that it wants to receive traffic sent by source S to group G. This is possible with IGMPv3/MLDv2 ※INCLUDE§ mode membership reports. We therefore refer to this model as the Source-Specific Multicast (SSM) model. SSM mandates the use of an explicit-join protocol between routers. The standard protocol for this is PIM-SSM, which is simply the subset of PIM-SM used to create (S,G) trees. There are no shared trees (*,G) state in SSM. Multicast receivers can thus ※join§ an ASM group G, or ※join§ (or more accurately ※subscribe§ to) an SSM (S,G) channel. To avoid having to repeat the term ※ASM group or SSM channel§, we will use the term (multicast) flow in the text, implying that the flow could be an ASM group or an SSM channel
QUESTION 80
Select and Place:

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

SO bgp dampening 60 600 2400 240 is:
60 half life 600 reuse 2400 suppress 240 max-suppress-time

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QUESTION 35
When verifying multicast configurations and operations on Cisco IOS-XR routers, which two statements regarding show commands are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Use the show route ipv4 multicast command to display the incoming and outgoing interface lists for each of the joined multicast groups
B. Use the show pim rpf command to display the RPF information for the RP or for the multicast source
C. Use the show mrib route command to display the (*,G) and (S,G) states information on the router
D. Use the show mrib route command to display the configured static multicast routes

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 36
The bsr-border router PIM interface configuration command is used for what purpose?
A. To enable the router as the candidate RP
B. To enable the router as the candidate BSR
C. To enable the router as the BSR mapping agent
D. To set up an administrative boundary to prevent BSR messages from being sent out through an interface
E. To define a boundary to restrict the RP discovery and announcement messages from being sent outside the PIM-SM domain

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 37
When implementing Anycast RP, the RPs are also required to establish which kind of peering with each other?
A. BGP
B. Multiprotocol BGP
C. MSDP
D. Bidirectional PIM
E. PIM SSM

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 38
Refer to the Cisco IOS-XR show output exhibit.

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The RPF neighbor 192.168.11.1 is the path towards the RP for the 224.1.1.1 multicast group
B. The RP for the 224.1.1.1 multicast group is reachable over the Gi0/0/0/0 interface
C. This router is the RP for the 224.1.1.1 multicast group
D. Incoming 224.1.1.1 multicast group traffic will be sent out through the Gi0/0/0/0 interface
E. Incoming 224.1.1.1 multicast group traffic will be sent out through the Gi0/0/0/2 interface

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 39
What must occur before an (S,G) entry can be populated in the multicast routing table?
A. The (*,G) entry must have timed out
B. The (*,G) entry OIL must be null
C. The router must be directly connected to the multicast source
D. The parent (*,G) entry must be created first

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 40
Which field in the IPv6 header can be used to set the DSCP value?
A. Flow Label
B. Type of Service
C. Traffic Class
D. Precedence
E. EXP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 41
Which mechanism is used by an IPv6 multicast receiver to join an IPv6 multicast group?
A. IGMP report
B. IGMP join
C. MLD report
D. General query
E. PIM join

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 42
Which of the following can be used by dual-stack service providers supporting IPv4/IPv6 customers with dual-stack hosts using public IPv6 addresses and private IPv4 addresses?
A. NAT64
B. 6RD
C. 6to4 tunnels
D. Carrier-grade NAT

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 43
Refer to the Cisco IOS DHCPv6 configuration shown in the exhibit.

Which statement is correct?
A. The configuration is missing a command under interface Gi0/1 to indicate to the attached hosts to use stateful DHCPv6 to obtain their IPv6 addresses
B. The IPv6 router advertisements indicate to the attached hosts on the Gi0/1 interface to get other information besides their IPv6 address via stateless auto configuration
C. The IPv6 DHCPv6 server pool configuration is misconfigured
D. The DNS server address can also be imported from another upstream DHCPv6 server

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 44
Which IPv6 mechanism occurs between a provider edge router and the customer premises equipment router to allow an ISP to automate the process of assigning a block of IPv6 addresses to a customer for use within the customer network?
A. Router Advertisement
B. DHCPv6 Prefix Delegation
C. DHCPv6 Lite
D. Stateful DHCPv6
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 45
Which three statements regarding NAT64 operations are correct? (Choose three.)
A. With stateful NAT64, many IPv6 address can be translated into one IPv4 address, thus IPv4 address conservation is achieved
B. Stateful NAT64 requires the use of static translation slots so IPv6 hosts and initiate connections to IPv4 hosts.
C. With stateless NAT64, the source and destination IPv4 addresses are embedded in the IPv6 addresses
D. NAT64 works in conjunction with DNS64
E. Both the stateful and stateless NAT64 methods will conserve IPv4 address usage

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 46
Which type of DNS record is used for IPv6 forward lookups?
A. A records
B. AAAA records
C. PTR records
D. MX records

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 47
What is enabled by default on Cisco IOS-XR routers and cannot be disabled?
A. SSH server
B. Multicast routing
C. IPv4 and IPv6 CEF
D. IPv6 routing
E. CDP
F. BFD
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 48
The IPv6 2002::/16 prefix is used in which kind of implementations?
A. 6RD
B. 6to4
C. NAT64
D. IPv6 Multicast

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 49
When implementing IP SLA icmp-echo probes on Cisco IOS-XE routers, which two options are available for IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. flow-label
B. hop-limit
C. DSCP
D. traffic-class
E. TOS

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 50
With IPv6 multicast, which feature can be used as a replacement method for static RP configuration?
A. PIM Snooping
B. MLD
C. MLD Snooping
D. Embedded RP
E. DHCPv6

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 51
Which additional feature is provided using MLDv2 that is not available in MLDv1?
A. Multicast Address Specific Queries
B. Source filtering
C. Done messages
D. Report messages

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 52
When implementing high-availability stateful switchover BGP routing, in which situation would Cisco NSR be required?
A. On the PE routers connecting to the CE routers which are not NSF aware or are not NSF capable
B. On the PE routers connecting to the CE routers which support graceful restart
C. On the PE routers connecting to the CE routers which are incapable of performing stateful switchover operations because the CE routers are only NSF aware but not NSF capable
D. On the PE routers connecting to the CE routers which are incapable of performing stateful switchover operations because the CE routers are only NSF capable but not NSF aware
E. On the service provider core P routers which are also NSF aware
F. On the service provider core P routers which are also NSF capable

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly explains the bgp graceful-restart command?
A. This command is used to enable NSR and is entered on the NSR-capable router, and also on any NSR-aware peer
B. This command is used to enable NSF and is entered on the NSF-capable router, and also on any NSF-aware peer
C. This command is only required on the NSF-capable routers to enable BGP graceful restart with the BGP peers
D. This command is only required on the NSF-aware routers to enable BGP graceful restart with the BGP peers
E. This command is only required on the NSR-capable routers to enable BGP graceful restart with the BGP peers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is missing to complete the configuration task of enabling BFD with the 192.168.1.1 EBGP peer?
A. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled globally under router bgp 64500 RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config-bgp)#bfd fast-detect
B. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled for the address-family under address-family ipv4 unicast RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config-bgp-af)#bfd fast-detect
C. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled for the 192.168.1.1 neighbor under neighbor 192.168.1.1 RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config-bgp-nbr)#bfd fast-detect
D. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled for the 192.168.1.1 neighbor address-family under neighbor
192.168.1.1 address-family ipv4 unicast
RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config-bgp-nbr-af)#bfd fast-detect

E. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled globally on the router RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config)#bfd fast-detect

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 55
Which two features are used to provide high availability multicast? (Choose two.)
A. BFD
B. NSF/SSO
C. PIM NSR
D. PIM triggered join
E. IGMP triggered report
F. MSDP

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 56
What are three BGP configuration characteristics of a multihomed customer that is connected to multiple service providers? (Choose three.)
A. The multihomed customer can use local preference to influence the return traffic from the service providers
B. The multihomed customer announces its assigned IP address space to its service providers through BGP
C. The multihomed customer has to decide whether to perform load sharing or use a primary/backup implementation
D. The multihomed customer must use private AS number
E. The multihomed customer configures outbound route filters to prevent itself from becoming a transit AS

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the EBGP configuration on a PE IOS-XR router exhibit.
After the EBGP configuration, no routes are accepted from the EBGP peer, nor are any routes advertised to the EBGP peer.

What could be the problem?
A. The update-source neighbor configuration command must also be configured
B. The next-hop-self neighbor configuration command must also be configured
C. EBGP neighbors must have an inbound and outbound route policy configured
D. An access list is blocking IP protocol 179 packets between the two EBGP peers
E. The maximum-prefix neighbor configuration command must also be configured

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 58
Refer to the exhibit.

The following multicast IP addresses map to which multicast MAC address?
A. 01:00:5E:8A:00:01
B. 01:00:5E:0A:00:01
C. 01:00:5E:7A:00:01
D. 01:00:5E:05:00:01

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 59
A junior network engineer has just configured a new IBGP peering between two Cisco ASR9K PE routers in the network using the loopback interface of the router, but the IBGP neighborship is not able to be established. Which two verification steps will be helpful in troubleshooting this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the network command under router BGP is configured correct on each router for announcing the router’s loopback interface in BGP
B. Verify that the ibgp-multihop command under the BGP neighbor is configured correctly on each router
C. Verify that the loopback interfaces are reachable over the IGP
D. Verify that the update-source loopback command under the BGP neighbor is configured correctly on each router
E. Verify that the ttl-security command under the BGP neighbor is configured correctly on each router to enable the router to send the BGP packets using a proper TTL value
F. Verify that the UDP port 179 traffic is not being blocked by an ACL or firewall between the two IBGP peers

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit for the outputs from an ASR9K router.

Why did the ping fail?
A. The ping command is missing the ipv6 option: ping ipv6 2001:db8:10:1:10::1/128
B. There is a problem with the IS-IS configurations
C. The fe80::eab7:48ff:fe2c:a180 next-hop is not reachable
D. The prefix length should be removed from the IPv6 address in the ping command: ping ipv6 2001:db8:10:1:10::1
E. IPv6 is not enabled on the Gi0/0/0/0 interface
F. The IPv6 neighbor discovery protocol is not enabled on the Gi0/0/0/0 interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 61
Which multicast routing protocol supports dense mode, sparse mode and bidirectional mode?
A. DVMRP
B. MOSPF
C. PIM
D. MP-BGP
E. MSDP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 62
When configuring BFD, the multiplier configuration option is used to determine which value?
A. The retry interval
B. The number of BFD packets that can be lost before the BFD peer is declared “down”
C. The minimum interval between packets accepted from the BFD peers
D. The number of BFD echo packets that will be originated by the router
E. The number of routing protocols that will use BFD for fast peer failure detection

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 63
After configuring the tunnel interface as shown in the exhibit, no IPv6 traffic is passed over the IPv4 network.

Which additional configuration is required to pass the IPv6 traffic over the IPv4 network?
A. Configure an IPv4 address on the tunnel0 interface
B. Configure an IPv6 static route to send the required IPv6 traffic over the tunnel0 interface
C. The tunnel destination should be pointing to an IPv6 address instead of an IPv4 address
D. The tunnel0 interface IPv6 address must use the 2002:://16 prefix

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 64
Refer to the Cisco IOS configuration exhibit.

Which statement is correct?
A. This configuration is typically configured on the boundary routers within a PIM SM domain to filter out malicious candidate-RP-announce and candidate-RP-discovery packets
B. This configuration is typically configured on the RPs within a PIM-SM domain to restrict the candidate-RP-announce packets
C. This configuration is typically configured on the mapping agents within a PIM-SM domain to restrict the candidate-RP-discovery packets
D. This configuration is typically configured on the MSDP peering routers within a PIM-SM domain to filter out malicious MSDP SA packets

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 65
Given the IPv6 address of 2001:0DB8::1:800:200E:88AA, what will be its corresponding the solicited-node multicast address?
A. FF01::1:200E:88AA
B. FF01::1:FF0E:88AA
C. FF01:0DB8::1:800:200E:88AA
D. FF02::1:FF0E:88AA
E. FF02::1:200E:88AA
F. FF02:0DB8::1:800:200E:88AA

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 66
With PIM-SM operations, which four pieces of information are maintained in the multicast routing table for each (*,G) or (S,G) entry? (Choose four.)
A. RPF Neighbor
B. RP Set
C. Incoming Interface
D. OIL
E. DF priority
F. PIM SM state flags

Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 67
What is one of the configuration errors within an AS that can stop a Cisco IOS-XR router from announcing certain prefixes to its EBGP peers?
A. Some prefixes were mistagged with the no-export BGP community
B. Some prefixes were set with an MED of 0
C. The outbound BGP route policy only has set actions defined without any pass actions defined
D. The inbound BGP route policy only has set actions defined without any pass actions defined

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 68
Refer to the Cisco IOS-XR configuration exhibit.

The Cisco IOS-XR router is unable to establish any PIM neighbor relationships. What is wrong with the configuration?
A. The configuration is missing: interface gi0/0/0/0 ip pim sparse-mode interface gi0/0/0/1 ip pim sparse-mode interface loopback0 ip pim sparse-mode
B. The configuration is missing: multicast-routing address-family ipv4 interface gi0/0/0/0 enable interface gi0/0/0/1 enable
C. The auto-rp scoping configurations should be set to 1 not 16
D. The RP address has not been configured using the rp-address router PIM configuration command
E. PIM defaults to dense mode operations only, so PIM sparse mode must be enabled using the pim sparse-mode router PIM configuration command

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 69
On Cisco IOS-XR, which BGP configuration group allows you to define address-family independent commands and address-family dependent commands for each address family?
A. neighbor-group
B. session-group
C. af-group
D. peer-group

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 70
DRAG DROP

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: Manually configured tunnel – 6RD , GRE Automatic Tunnel – 6 to 4 , IPV6-in-IPV4
QUESTION 71
DRAG DROP

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation: Any Source Multicast – Uses RP’s as the root of the shared tree for a multicast group,ONly (S,G) state is build between the source and the recevier, Spport SPT Switchover Source Specific Multicast – Uses (*,G) joins as well as (S,G) Joins , Requires IGMPV3 Support, Hosts learn the multicast source address via out-of-banf mechanism
QUESTION 72
DRAG DROP A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation: The amount of time for the penalty to decrease to one-half of its current value – 60 Suppress a route when its penalty exceeds this value – 2400 If a flapping route penalty decreases and falls below this value , the route is unsuppressed – 600 The maximum time a route can be suppressed – 240
QUESTION 73
On the PE5 router, which statement Is correct regarding the learned BGP prefixes?
A. The 209.165.201.0/27 prefix is received from the 10.0.1.1 IBGP peer which is a route reflector
B. The 172.16.66.0/24 prefix BGP next-hop points to the route reflector
C. All prefixes learned on PE5 has the default local prefernce value
D. The 209.165.202.128/27 prefix is originated by the 10.0.1.1 IBGP peer

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: #show ip bgp– check i tag for PE5
QUESTION 74

Which two statements regarding the BGP peerlngs are correct? (Choose two)
A. On PE5,the incoming prefixes received from the 192.168.105.51 EBGP peer is limited to a maximum of 10 prefixes
B. On PE5, the “rplin” inbound route policy is applied to the 192.168.105.51 EBGP peer
C. On PE5, the “pass” outbound route policy is applied to the 192.168.105.51 EBGP peer
D. PE5 has one EBGP peer (CE5) and two IBGP peers (P1 and PE6)
E. PE5 has received a total of 60 prefixes from its neighbors

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: #show ip bgp
QUESTION 75
Which three statements regarding the BGP operations are correct? (Choose three)
A. PE5 will set the local preferences 200 on all the prefixes sent to CE5
B. PE5 will set the local preference to 200 on all the prefixes learned from CE5
C. CE5 has received 5 prefixes from the PE5 EBGP peer D. CE5 has the BGP scan interval set to 30 seconds
E. CE5 is announcing the 192.168.55.0/24 prefix via EBGP to the PE5 EBGP peer
F. The AS-Path to reach the 209.165.202.128/27 prefix from CE5 is: 64500 64497 64498

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: #sh ip bgp | be Network #sh ip bgp #show ip bgp neighbors
QUESTION 76

Which three statements regarding the BGP operations are correct? (Choose three)
A. PE5 is the route reflector with P1 and PE6 as its client
B. PE5 is using the IS-IS route to reach the BGP next-hop for the 172.16.66.0/24 prefix
C. PE5 has BGP route dampening enabled
D. The BGP session between PE5 and P1 is established using the loopback interface and next- hop-self
E. The BGP session between PE5 and CE5 is established using the loopback interface

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 77
Which router Is configured as the RPforthe 234.1.1.1 multicast group and which Is the multicast source that is currently sending traffic to the 234.1.1.1 multicast group? (Choose two.)
A. CE5
B. PE5
C. PE6
D. 10.5.10.1
E. 10.5.1.1
F. 192.168.156.60

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: #show ip mroute234.1.1.1 #show ip route
QUESTION 78

Which three statements are correct regarding the various multicast groups? (Choose three.)
A. Currently there is no source sending traffic to the 224.1.1.1 multicast group
B. PE5 has a Null OILforthe (*,224.0.1.40) entry
C. PE5 has a Null OILforthe (*,224.1.1.1) entry
D. CE5 has joined the 224.0.1.40 multicast group
E. CE5 has a Null OILforthe (*,224.1.1.1) entry

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: #show ip mroute
QUESTION 79
On the PE, which two statements are correct regarding the(192.168.156.60,224.1.1.1) entry? (Choose two,)
A. The RPF neighbor points towards the RP
B. The RPF neighbor is reachable overthe Gi0/0/0/1 interface
C. The OIL contains the GiO/0/0/0 interface
D. The IIL is Null

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: #show ip mroute
QUESTION 80

Which two statements are correct regarding the multicast operations on the router that is the RP? (Choose two.)
A. It is using IGMPv3
B. The IGMP query interval is set to 125 seconds
C. It is using the IPv4 unicast routing table to perform the RPF checks
D. Static multicast routes are configured on the RP

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: #show ip mroute #show ip pim interface #show ip igmp group #show ip pim neighbor

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QUESTION 40
When using the Cisco IOS XR route policy language to define a logical if-then-else condition, which logical operator has the highest precedence?
A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IS
E. IN

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios_xr_sw/iosxr_r3.0/routing/configuration/guide/rc3rpl.html

QUESTION 41
When configuring Cisco IOS XR route policy nesting, which command is used within a route policy to call another route policy?
A. apply
B. continue
C. jump
D. goto
E. call

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios_xr_sw/iosxr_r3.7/routing/command/reference/rr37plcy.html
Examples
In the following example, the policy CustomerIn applies the route-policy SetLocalPref to conditionally set the local preference on a route. The parameters 20, 30, 40, and 50 are passed to the parameterized policy SetLocalPref, where the local preference is set to:
.
20, if the community 217:20 is present in the route

.
30, if the community 217:30 is present in the route

.
40, if the community 217:40 is present in the route

.
50, if the community 217:50 is present in the route
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config)# route-policy SetLocalPref ($lp0, $lp1, $lp2,
$lp3, $lp4)
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# if community matches-any ($lp0:$lp1)then

RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# set local-preference $lp1
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# elseif community matches-any
($lp0:$lp2) then

RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# set local-preference $lp2

RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# elseif community matches-any
($lp0:$lp3) then
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# set local-preference $lp3
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# elseif community matches-any

($lp0:$lp4) then
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# set local-preference $lp4
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl-elseif)# endif
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# end-policy

RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config)# route-policy CustomerIn($cust)
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# apply SetLocalPref ($cust, 20, 30, 40, 50)
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# end-policy

RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config)# route-policy Cust_217
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# apply CustomerIn(217)
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rpl)# end-policy

QUESTION 42
Refer to the Cisco IOS XR route policy exhibit. If the original incoming routing update has an MED of 10 and a local preference of 100, how will the routing update be modified?

A. The local preference will be set to 100, the MED will be set to 10, and the weight will be set to 100.
B. The local preference will be set to 100, the MED will be set to 10, and the weight will be set to 200. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 18 Cisco 642-883 Exam
C. The local preference will be set to 200, the MED will be set to 10, and the weight will be set to 100.
D. The local preference will be set to 200, the MED will be set to 10, and the weight will be set to 200.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 43
What is defined by using the Cisco IOS XR policy-global configuration command?
A. the default BGP route policy
B. global variables that can be referenced by any route policy
C. the global default route policy
D. hierarchical route policy
E. nested route policy

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Global Configuration Mode

Prompt: (config)
Enter global configuration mode from executive (EXEC) mode by using the configure command. Global configuration commands generally apply to the whole system rather than just one protocol or interface. You can enter all other configuration submodes listed in this section from global configuration mode.
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router# configure
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config)#

Global Parameter Configuration Mode
Prompt: (config-rpl-gl)
Enter global parameter configuration mode by using the policy-global command in global configuration mode. In global parameter configuration mode, you can create or modify a global policy by entering successive commands and then terminating the configuration by entering the end-global command.
For example, to configure global parameters:
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config)# policy-global RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rp-gl)# glbpathtype ebgp RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rp-gl)# glbtag 100 RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config-rp-gl)# end-global
QUESTION 44
How can you prevent multihomed customers with connections to two service providers from acting as a transit AS?
A. Enable BGP synchronization on all the customer routers.
B. Use MED to influence the inbound traffic from the ISPs.
C. Use static routing to the ISPs.
D. Use an AS-path access-list to filter the BGP updates to the ISPs.
E. Use conditional advertisements when sending BGP updates to the ISPs.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 45
Refer to the Cisco IOS XR route policy exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. “test” and “foo” are references to the community sets.
B. The “match-any” option indicates matching either the standard community or extended community.
C. Routes that match both the “test” and “foo” conditions will have their local preference set to 20.
D. All non-matching routes will be permitted.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 19 Cisco 642-883 Exam
QUESTION 46
When redistributing routes into OSPF, which kind of routes will be redistributed by default on Cisco IOS XR Software but will not be automatically redistributed by default on Cisco IOS Software and Cisco IOS XE Software?
A. Type 1 external routes
B. Type 2 external routes
C. subnetted routes
D. /32 host routes
E. tagged static routes
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 47
When redistributing EIGRP routes into OSPF as type E2 external OSPF routes, what is the default OSPF seed metric?
A. Infinite
B. 0
C. 1
D. 10
E. 20

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco IOS XR configuration is missing to complete the configuration task of enabling BFD with only the OSPF peer over the gi0/3/0/1 interface in area 0?

A. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled globally under router ospf 100. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config-ospf)#bfd fast-detect
B. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled for the OSPF area under area 0. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config-ospf-ar)#bfd fast-detect
C. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled for the OSPF interface under area 0 interface gi0/3/0/1. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config-ospf-ar-if)#bfd fast-detect
D. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled globally on the router. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config#bfd fast-detect
E. bfd fast-detect also needs to be enabled on the gi0/3/0/1 interface under interface gi0/3/0/1. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P1(config-if)#bfd fast-detect

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: bfd fast-detect
To enable Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) to detect failures in the path between adjacent forwarding engines, use the bfd fast-detect command in the appropriate configuration mode. To return the software to the default state in which BFD is not enabled, use the no form of this command.
bfd fast-detect
no bfd fast-detect
QUESTION 49
Which high-availability routing feature requires the neighbor router to support the graceful restart capability?
A. BFD
B. NSR
C. NSF
D. MTR

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
On Cisco IOS XR software, NSF minimizes the amount of time a network is unavailable to its users following a route processor (RP) failover. The main objective of NSF is to continue forwarding IP packets and perform a graceful restart following an RP failover.
When a router restarts, all routing peers of that device usually detect that the device went down and then came back up. This transition results in what is called a routing flap, which could spread across multiple routing domains. Routing flaps caused by routing restarts create routing instabilities, which are detrimental to the overall network performance. NSF helps to suppress routing flaps in NSF-aware devices, thus reducing network instability.
NSF allows for the forwarding of data packets to continue along known routes while the routing protocol information is being restored following an RP failover. When the NSF feature is configured, peer networking devices do not experience routing flaps. Data traffic is forwarded through intelligent line cards while the standby RP assumes control from the failed active RP during a failover. The ability of line cards to remain up through a failover and to be kept current with the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) on the active RP is key to NSF operation.
When the Cisco IOS XR router running IS-IS routing performs an RP failover, the router must perform two tasks to resynchronize its link-state database with its IS-IS neighbors. First, it must relearn the available IS-IS neighbors on the network without causing a reset of the neighbor relationship. Second, it must reacquire the contents of the link-state database for the network.
The IS-IS NSF feature offers two options when configuring NSF:
.
IETF NSF

.
Cisco NSF
If neighbor routers on a network segment are NSF aware, meaning that neighbor routers are running a software version that supports the IETF Internet draft for router restartability, they assist an IETF NSF router that is restarting. With IETF NSF, neighbor routers provide adjacency and link-state information to help rebuild the routing information following a failover.
In Cisco IOS XR software, Cisco NSF checkpoints (stores persistently) all the state necessary to recover from a restart without requiring any special cooperation from neighboring routers. The state is recovered from the neighboring routers, but only using the standard features of the IS-IS routing protocol. This capability makes Cisco NSF suitable for use in networks in which other routers have not used the IETF standard implementation of NSF
QUESTION 50
Which high-availability mechanism is a detection protocol that is enabled at the interface and at the routing protocol levels?
A. NSF
B. SSO
C. NSR
D. BFD
E. SDR

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/fs_bfd.html
QUESTION 51
Refer to the Cisco IOS show command output shown in the exhibit. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the AS path.
B. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the weight.
C. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the local preference.
D. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the MED.
E. The best path to 10.2.10.1/32 was chosen because of the route origin. “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 21 Cisco 642-883 Exam

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 52
Which OSPF feature allows a router with redundant route processors to maintain its OSPF state and adjacencies across planned and unplanned RP switchovers and does this by checkpointing state information from OSPF on the active RP to the standby RP? This feature does not require the OSPF neighbor to support graceful restart.
A. NSR
B. NSF
C. BFD
D. MTR
E. SDR

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Continuous Forwarding
An important aspect of high availability is maintenance of traffic forwarding, even in the case of control-plane switchovers. Cisco IOS XR Software has several built-in features that can provide continuous forwarding, including RSP stateful switchover (SSO), Nonstop Forwarding (NSF), Graceful Restart, and NSR.

NSF: Cisco IOS XR Software supports forwarding without traffic loss during a brief outage of the control plane through signaling and routing protocol implementations for Graceful Restart extensions as standardized by the IETF. In addition to standards compliance, this implementation has been compatibility tested with Cisco IOS Software and third-party operating systems.


Graceful Restart: This control-plane mechanism ensures high availability by allowing detection and recovery from failure conditions while preserving NSF services. Graceful Restart is a way to recover from signaling and control-plane failures without affecting the forwarding plane. Cisco IOS XR Software uses this feature and a combination of check pointing, mirroring, RSP redundancy, and other system resiliency features to recover prior to timeout and avoid service downtime as a result of network reconvergence.


NSR: This feature allows for the forwarding of data packets to continue along known routes while the routing protocol information is being refreshed following a processor switchover. NSR maintains protocol sessions and state information across SSO functions for services such as Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) VPN. TCP connections and the routing protocol sessions are migrated from the active RSP to the standby RSP after the RSP failover without letting the peers know about the failover. The sessions terminate locally on the failed RSP, and the protocols running on the standby RSP reestablish the sessions after the standby RSP goes active, without the peer detecting the change. You can also use NSR with Graceful Restart to protect the routing control plane during switchovers. The Cisco IOS XR Operating System provides system resiliency through a comprehensive set of high-availability features including modularity, process restart, fault handling, continuous forwarding, and upgradability.
QUESTION 53
Which two statements regarding OSPFv2 or OSPFv3 authentication are correct? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv2 supports MD5 authentication.
B. OSPFv2 supports MD5 or SHA authentication.
C. OSPFv2 relies on the native security stack that uses IPsec.
D. OSPFv3 supports MD5 authentication.
E. OSPFv3 supports MD5 or SHA authentication.
F. OSPFv3 relies on the native security stack that uses IPsec.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 54
What are three common problems that can cause a BGP neighbor state to toggle between the idle state and the active state? (Choose three.)
A. BGP network command misconfiguration
B. route policy misconfiguration
C. AS number misconfiguration
D. route map misconfiguration
E. BGP neighbor peering to wrong IP address
F. IGP routing problem: not able to reach the source IP address of the BGP open packet

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 55
BGP peerings can be secured using which protection mechanism?
A. SHA authentication
B. MD5 authentication
C. SSH
D. SSL “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 22 Cisco 642-883 Exam
E. AAA
F. digital certificates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080b52107.shtml
QUESTION 56
In an AS with 10 routers running IBGP, how many IBGP sessions will be required to establish fully meshed IBGP peerings?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 45
D. 50
E. 99
F. 100

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
N * (N-1) /2
QUESTION 57
You are implementing OSPF as the IGP using a single OSPF area design. The router memory usage for OSPF is too high. Which two methods can lower the OSPF memory usage? (Choose two.)
A. enable OSPF synchronization
B. implement multi-area OSPF
C. enable OSPF sham links to reduce the number of LSAs
D. implement route summarization on the ABRs
E. enable route leaking between Level 1 and Level 2 areas

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 58
Routes that are received from an IBGP peer will be propagated to which other routers by default?
A. to the EBGP peers only
B. to the IBGP peers only
C. to both EBGP and IBGP peers
D. to no other peers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 59
What are two consequences of having constant link flaps, resulting in the OSPF neighbor adjacencies going up and down repeatedly? (Choose two.)
A. routes getting into the “Stuck In Active” state
B. constant flooding of LSAs
C. OSPF route dampening to occur
D. many SPF recalculations “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 23 Cisco 642-883 Exam
E. routing loops may temporarily be introduced into the network

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 60
When monitoring the OSPF operations in the network, you notice that the OSPF process is not load balancing traffic across multiple OSPF links. Which configuration adjustment could be made to enable the OSPF process to load balance traffic across multiple OSPF links?
A. Enable BFD on the OSPF interfaces and on the OSPF routing process.
B. Enable NSR on the OSPF routing process.
C. Enable NSF on the OSPF routing process.
D. Adjust the OSPF cost on the OSPF interfaces.
E. Adjust the OSPF variance parameter.
F. Use the wide-style OSPF metric instead of the narrow-style OSPF metric.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 61
Refer to the network diagram in the exhibit. If both ASBRs are advertising the external Destination X network as OSPF E2 route, what is the best path for the R1 router to reach Network X?

A. R1 will use the path via ASBR 2 as the best path.
B. R1 will use the path via ASBR 1 as the best path.
C. R1 will load balance between two equal cost paths via ASBR 1 and ASBR 2.
D. R1 will sees two equal costs and will choose the path through the ASBR with the lower OSPF router ID.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 24 Cisco 642-883 Exam
QUESTION 62
Refer to the show command output in the exhibit. For which reason will this router drop all traffic that is destined to the 1.1.1.0/24 network?

A. The 1.1.1.0/24 route is not synchronized.
B. The BGP next hop for reaching the 1.1.1.0/24 network is not reachable.
C. The metric of the 1.1.1.0/24 route is set to 0.
D. The weight of the 1.1.1.0/24 route is set to 0.
E. The 1.1.1.0/24 route is an incomplete route.
F. The IBGP split-horizon rule is preventing the router to use the IBGP route.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 63
Which of the following is used by an IS-IS router to detect other IS-IS neighbor routers and to form adjacencies?
A. ESH
B. ISH
C. IIH
D. PSNP
E. CSNP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ISIS actually features three different hello types An ES Hello (ESH) is send by all End Systems, and all IS devices listen for this Hello An IS Hello (ISH) announces the presence of an IS – An IS Hello is sent by all IS devices, and End Systems listen for these hellos

Finally, an IS-to-IS Hello (IIH) is used by an IS to discover other ISes and to form adjacencies with them
A router will send an IIH to another router on the link to form or maintain an adjacency, but it will still send an ISH as well in case there are end systems located on that segment
QUESTION 64
Hotspot
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 29 Cisco 642-883 Exam How many total OSPF virtual links are configured in this multiarea OSPF network which supports both OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 for IPv4 and IPv6 routing?
A. 1
B. 2 “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 30 Cisco 642-883 Exam
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
#Show running-config | include virtual check how many router having “virtual ” entry
QUESTION 65

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 31 Cisco 642-883 Exam

Which statement Is correct regarding the DR election process In this OSPF implementation?
A. Both the CE5 and PE6 routers are DROTHERs
B. PE5 is the OSPFv2 DR for the GigabitEthernet link between PE5 and PE6
C. PE6 is the OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 DR for the GigabitEthernet link between PE5 and PE6
D. PE6 is the DR for the GigabitEthernet link between PE5 and PE6 because it has a higher OSPF priority

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
# show ip ospf neighbor # show ipv6 ospf neighbor
QUESTION 66
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 32 Cisco 642-883 Exam On the PE5 router, there are how many IPv4 and IPv6 OSPF neighbors and how many IPv4 OSPF interfaces? (Choose three)
A. two ipv4 ospf neighbors
B. three ipv4 ospf neighbors “First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 33 Cisco 642-883 Exam
C. two ipv6 ospf neighbors
D. three ipv6 ospf neighbors
E. three ipv4 ospf interfaces
F. four ipv4 ospf interfaces

Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
# show ip ospf neighbor # show ipv6 ospf neighbor
QUESTION 67

“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 34 Cisco 642-883 Exam

Which three statements are correct regarding the OSPF operations? line (Choose three.)
A. PE5 OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 router id is 10.5.1.1
B. The OSPF virtual-link cost is 1
C. Area 3 is a transit area
D. Area 4 is using MD5 authentication
E. Area 1 IPv4 and IPv6 networks are not reachable from PE6

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
#show ip protocols #show ip route ospf #show ip ospf interfaces #show ip ospf neighbors #show ip ospf database #show ip ospf border-routers #show ip ospf #show ip route #show ip protocols
QUESTION 68
Hotspot
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 35 Cisco 642-883 Exam What is the configured IS-IS circuit-type between the CE5 and PE5 routers and between the PE5 and PE6 routers? (Choose two.)
A. Circuittype L1 between CE5 and PE5 4
B. Circuittype L1/L2 between CE5 and PE5
C. Circuittype L2 between CE5 and PE5
D. Circuittype L1 between PE5 and PE6
E. Circuittype L1/L2 between PE5 and PE6
F. Circuittype L2 between PE5 and PE6

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
#show clns neighbor
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 36 Cisco 642-883 Exam
QUESTION 69

Which router(s) is/are IS-Type L1/L2 IS-IS router?
A. CE5 only
B. PE6 only
C. CE5 and PE6 only
D. PE5 and PE6 only
E. CE5, PE5 and PE6
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 37 Cisco 642-883 Exam
#show clns neighbor

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QUESTION 35
Which format can NOT be imported into Cisco WCS Planning Tool?

A. TIFF
B. DXF
C. PNG
D. DWG

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36 Which three items does the Cisco WCS Planning Tool Generate Proposal Report provide? (Choose three)
A. access point position, in feet, from a corner of the floor plan
B. SNR coverage map for 802.11a/n
C. data rate map for 802.11a/n
D. percent of coverage by signal

Correct Answer: ACD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
How should the transmit power on an access point and client each be set during a site survey?

A. at 30mW
B. matched to the antenna gain
C. differing by at least 20 dBi
D. matched to each other

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
What is a site survey best practice for location-based services?

A. 20 percent cell overlap
B. four access points detecting a client at -76 dBm or better
C. 10 percent cell overlap
D. three access points detecting a client at -75 dBm or better

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
Which statement about active and passive surveys is incorrect?

A. Active mode does not require the client to be specifically confgured
B. Passive mode can survey more than one access point at a time
C. Active mode yields signal-quality information such as packet retries and lost packets
D. Active mode requires more time to survey but yields more information results than passive mode does

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Which statement regarding the site-survey process is correct?

A. In a multifloor building, the access point layout from the survey of one floor can be directly applied to the remaining floors
B. Access points can be installed in the same place on every floor, without worrying about co-channel interference
C. You can survey with a Cisco AIR-ANT5959 in a plenum environment
D. Identify all hazardous and restricted areas that might require extra or special survey and installation work

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41 For an active Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phone 7921G 5 GHz site survey, what are the most appropriate client test settings to use with the AirMagnet site survey tool?
A. 100 mW, 24 Mb/s
B. 100 mW, 18 Mb/s
C. 25 mW, 18 Mb/s
D. 3.2 mW, 54 Mb/s

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
Which can NOT be selected for supported services in Cisco WCS Planning Tool?

A. data/coverage
B. location with Monitor Mode access points
C. demand
D. high density

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43 In which three frequency bands does the Cisco Spectrum Expert Wi-Fi tool perform spectrum analysis? (Choose three)
A. ISM 2.4 GHz
B. ISM 900 MHz
C. ISM 5 GHz
D. public safety 4.9 GHz
E. GSM 1.9 GHz

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44 Which three device types are identified by Cisco Spectrum Expert Wi-Fi finding an Avg Pulse Duration parameter?
A. Bluetooth
B. frequency hopping
C. microwave oven
D. 802.11b client card
E. 802.11b access point

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45 Which two Cisco antennas provide better isolation from RF sources that might be located behind the antennas?
A. AIR-ANT3213
B. AIR-ANT2465P-R
C. AIR-ANT1949
D. AIR-ANT5160V-R

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
Which three formats can be used to import floor maps in Cisco WCS v5.2? (Choose three)

A. PNG
B. JPEG
C. GIF
D. BMP
E. PICT
F. TIFF

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47 Cisco recommends a decibel referenced to 1 milliwatt signal level for the coverage cell edge at the predetermined data rate that is needed to support the VoWLAN device and call capacity requirements. What is that signal level value for Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920, 7921G, and 7925G?
A. -65 dBm
B. -67 dBm
C. -69 dBm
D. -70 dBm

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Which two methods can be used to prevent or reduce RFI from colocated directional antennas?
(Choose two)

A. Alternate polarization between colocated antennas
B. Cross-polarize antennas between endpoints
C. Install an RF-shielded box around the antennas
D. Increase the distance between the antennas

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49 Which antenna generally has the narrowest first Fresnel zone in both the horizontal and vertical planes?
A. omnidirectional
B. patch
C. Yagi
D. sector
E. parabolic dish

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
What does a Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phone 7921G deployment require?

A. more access points than a data network
B. fewer access points than a data network
C. less SNR than a data network
D. specific relative access point placement

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
What will cause wireless voice devices to perform poorly?

A. average signal strength that is greater than -67 dBi
B. cell overlap of 15 to 20 percent
C. uneven wireless coverage
D. absence of coverage holes

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52 After the site installation is complete, you should verify the mobility of the VoWLAN device while walking the site on an active phone call. Which Cisco WLC or Cisco WCS command is most beneficial in determining roaming efficiency?

A. show {802.11a | 802.11b} |2roam statistics <AP mac>
B. show client roam-history <client-mac>
C. show client tsm 802.11a/b/g <client-mac> <AP mac>
D. show client detail <client-mac>
E. show client ap-roam-history <client-mac>

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53 According to the following statement, can you tell me which term is described? It is the air return for an air conditioned system. In most buildings, the area above a drop ceiling or under a raised floor is used as the air return (source of air) for the air conditioning. Those drop ceiling and raised floors are also where wire is often installed. If wire and cable is installed in a drop ceiling or raised floor, it is out of sight. If that cable were burning, it would give off toxic fumes. These would be fed to the rest of the building by the air conditioner. As a result, people could be injured even though they are a long way from the fire.
A. DAS area
B. plenum area
C. extended area
D. RF special area

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
What are two objectives of a pre-site survey walkthrough? (Choose two)

A. Identify potential problem areas
B. Define intended coverage areas
C. Access compliance with local building codes
D. Determine the final location of APs and antennas
E. Identify sources of RF signal attenuation and RF interference

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55 In an outdoor bridge link, what is calculated by using this formula: transmitter power + antenna gain – insertion OR cable loss?
A. Fresnel zone
B. SNR
C. SLR
D. PoE
E. EIRP

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56 Which antenna generally has the narrowest first Fresnel zone in both the horizontal and vertical planes?
A. omnidirectional
B. patch
C. Yagi
D. sector
E. parabolic dish

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
How is attenuation measured?

A. Fresnel units
B. decibels
C. EIRP
D. milliamperes
E. ohms

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
Which statement about active and passive surveys is incorrect?

A. Active mode does not require the client to be specifically confgured
B. Passive mode can survey more than one access point at a time
C. Active mode yields signal-quality information such as packet retries and lost packets
D. Active mode requires more time to survey but yields more information results than passive mode does

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 59 Which three device types are identified by Cisco Spectrum Expert Wi-Fi finding an Avg Pulse Duration parameter?
A. Bluetooth
B. frequency hopping
C. microwave oven
D. 802.11b client card
E. 802.11b access point

Correct Answer: ABC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Which two methods can be used to prevent or reduce RFI from colocated directional antennas?
(Choose two)

A. Alternate polarization between colocated antennas
B. Cross-polarize antennas between endpoints
C. Install an RF-shielded box around the antennas
D. Increase the distance between the antennas

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61
Which three colors are used in the Cisco WCS v5.2 Voice Readiness Tool? (Choose three)

A. green
B. blue
C. yellow
D. red
E. purple
F. white

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Traffic lights!
QUESTION 62
Which format can NOT be imported into Cisco WCS Planning Tool?

A. TIFF
B. DXF
C. PNG D. DWG

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63 In which three frequency bands does the Cisco Spectrum Expert Wi-Fi tool perform spectrum analysis? (Choose three)
A. ISM 2.4 GHz
B. ISM 900 MHz
C. ISM 5 GHz
D. public safety 4.9 GHz
E. GSM 1.9 GHz

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64 After the site installation is complete, you should verify the mobility of the VoWLAN device while walking the site on an active phone call. Which Cisco WLC or Cisco WCS command is most beneficial in determining roaming efficiency?
A. show {802.11a | 802.11b} |2roam statistics <AP mac>
B. show client roam-history <client-mac>
C. show client tsm 802.11a/b/g <client-mac> <AP mac>
D. show client detail <client-mac>
E. show client ap-roam-history <client-mac>

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65
Which statement about active and passive surveys is incorrect?

A. Active mode does not require the client to be specifically confgured
B. Passive mode can survey more than one access point at a time
C. Active mode yields signal-quality information such as packet retries and lost packets
D. Active mode requires more time to survey but yields more information results than passive mode does

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 65
Which command implements Unicast RPF IP spoofing protection?
A. access-list
B. access-group
C. ip verify reverse-path interface
D. tcp verify reverse-path interface
E. udp verify reverse-path interface

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
When allowing syslog access from devices outside a firewall, what filtering at the perimeter router should you implement?
A. no filtering should be implemented since it will block the syslog traffic
B. RFC 1918
C. RFC 2827
D. RFC 1281
E. RFC 1642
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
How many modules exist in the SAFE Enterprise Network Campus?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR remote user network? Choose three.
A. Layer 2 switch
B. router with firewall and VPN support
C. Layer 3 switch
D. firewall with VPN support
E. NIDS
F. personal firewall software

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Which IDS guidelines should be followed, according to SAFE SMR?
A. use TCP shunning as opposed to TCP resets
B. use shunning no longer than 15 minutes
C. use shunning on only UDP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than TCP
D. use shunning on only TCP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than UDP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
What is the primary identity component in a Cisco security solution?
A. Cisco VPN Concentrators
B. Cisco PIX Firewalls
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco Access Control servers
E. Cisco IOS Firewalls

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
What IKE proposal should be chosen on the VPN Concentrator for the Unity Client?
A. any proposal that ends with DH7
B. any IKE proposal, except the IKE proposal that ends with DH7
C. any proposal that starts with Cisco VPN Client
D. any proposal that starts with DH7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Which of the following is true about CSA?
A. CSA is a signature-based intrusion prevention system and creates significantly fewer true positives than NIDS
B. CSA is a behavior-based intrusion prevention system and creates significantly fewer false positives than NIDS.
C. CSA is signature-based intrusion prevention system and creates significantly fewer true negatives than NIDS.
D. CSA is a behavior-based intrusion prevention system and creates significantly fewer false negatives than NIDS.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
CSA is a behavior-based intrusion prevention system and creates significantly fewer false negatives than NIDS.
A. All uninfected systems are patched with the appropriate vendor patch for the vulnerability.
B. The spread of a worm infection is limited to areas of the network that are already affected.
C. An actively infected system is disinfected of the worm.
D. Infected machines are identified, contained, and blocked.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
What does the Cisco Unified Client framework provide?
A. distributed push policy technology
B. centralized push policy technology
C. centralized pull policy technology
D. multi-tiered policy technology

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 76
Which command implements Unicast RPF IP spoofing protection?
A. access-list
B. access-group
C. ip verify reverse-path interface
D. tcp verify reverse-path interface
E. udp verify reverse-path interface

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which model is recommended for an IDS with at least 100 Mbps performance?
A. 4210
B. 4220
C. 4250
D. 4260

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
How are application layer attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR small network corporate Internet module?
A. NIDS
B. virus scanning at the host level
C. HIDS on the public servers
D. filtering at the firewall
E. CAR at ISP edge
F. TCP setup controls at the firewall to limit exposure

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
When allowing syslog access from devices outside a firewall, what filtering at the perimeter router should you implement?
A. no filtering should be implemented since it will block the syslog traffic
B. RFC 1918
C. RFC 2827
D. RFC 1281
E. RFC 1642

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
What method helps mitigate the threat of IP spoofing?
A. access control
B. logging
C. SNMP polling
D. Layer 2 switching

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 82
What are the two options in the SAFE SMR midsize network design for WAN connections? Choose two.
A. IPSec VPN tunnel connections
B. only frame relay connections
C. private WAN connections
D. ATM connections

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
In the SAFE SMR midsize network design, which module does dial-in traffic terminate?
A. campus module
B. WAN module
C. ISP edge module
D. corporate Internet module
E. PSTN module
F. frame/ATM module

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Which is true with regard to creating an RPC entry with the NFS program number?
A. NFS traffic designated as friendly will be allowed through the firewall
B. no NFS traffic will be allowed through the firewall
C. all NFS traffic will be allowed through the firewall
D. NFS traffic designated as hostile will not be allowed through the firewall

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What is IP logging, as defined for the Cisco IDS appliance?
A. IDS logs IP address information for hosts being attacked
B. IDS logs user information from an attacking host
C. IDS captures packets from an attacking host
D. IDS logs IP address information from an attacking host

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
What causes the default TCP intercept feature of the IOS Firewall to become more aggressive? Choose two.
A. the number of incomplete connections exceeds 1100
B. the number of connections arriving in the last 1 minute exceeds 1100
C. the number of incomplete connections exceeds 100
D. the number of connections arriving in the last 10 minutes exceeds 1000

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
How is unauthorized access mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall
B. OS and IDS detection
C. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
D. IDS at the host and network levels
E. e-mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
F. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which three Cisco components encompass secure connectivity? Choose three.
A. Cisco IDS Sensors
B. Cisco PIX Firewalls
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco VPN Concentrators
E. Cisco IOS IDS
F. Cisco IOS VPN

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which threats are expected in the SAFE Enterprise Network Campus Building module? Choose two.
A. IP spoofing
B. packet sniffers
C. unauthorized access
D. virus and trojan horse applications
E. port redirection attacks

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
What are two advantages of using integrated systems and appliances? Choose two.
A. achieve better performance
B. implement on existing equipment
C. achieve better interoperability
D. improved manageability
E. increased feature functionality

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) operates at what layer of the OSI model?
A. physical
B. network
C. transport
D. data link

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
What type of authentication does the Cisco 3000 Series Concentrator use?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. CHAP
D. PAP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
How are password attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. e-mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
C. OS and IDS detection
D. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. WAN router
B. VPN Concentrator
C. firewalls
D. NIDS host
E. corporate servers
F. layer 2 switches

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
According to SAFE SMR, which Cisco router is best suited for a remote office?
A. 800 and 900 series
B. 1700 series
C. 2600 and 3600 series
D. 7100 and 7200 series

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
How are denial of service attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. IDS at the host and network levels
C. e-mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
D. OS and IDS detection
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall
F. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 98
What options can be chosen for TCP session reassembly on the IDS Sensor in the SAFE SMR medium network design? Choose two.
A. IP reassembly
B. no reassembly
C. loose reassembly
D. total reassembly

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
What is a feature of SIP?
A. SIP is a transport-layer control protocol that uses IP addresses for transporting multimedia traffic and call management
B. SIP is a session-layer control protocol that uses SIP addresses for signal and session management
C. SIP is an application-layer control protocol that uses SIP addresses for signal and session management.
D. SIP is a session-layer control protocol that uses IP addresses for transporting multimedia traffic and session management.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
How many modules exist in the SAFE Enterprise Network Campus?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 102
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. firewalls
B. NIDS host
C. Layer 3 switches
D. VPN Concentrator
E. corporate servers
F. WAN router

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
What service is provided by CSA Profiler?
A. Profiler analyzes applications to help in generating useful policies.
B. Profiler monitors and logs security events that occur on CSA protected hosts.
C. Profiler provides a COM component utility that installs with each CSA.
D. Profiler configures agent kits that are deployed on CSA protected hosts.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Which three authentication methods are supported by CSACS? Choose three.
A. PPP
B. RADIUS
C. CHAP
D. TACACS+
E. PAP
F. static passwords

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
In which module does the firewall exist in the SAFE SMR small network design?
A. Internet
B. campus
C. corporate Internet
D. edge

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
The VPN acceleration module (VAM) is available on what series of VPN optimized routers? Choose two.
A. 1700 Series
B. 2600 Series
C. 3600 Series
D. 7100 Series
E. 7200 Series

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
When using PC-based IP phones, which threat is expected between data and voice segments if not protected by a stateful firewall?
A. TCP flood DoS attack
B. IP spoofing attack
C. UDP flood DoS attack
D. application layer attack

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
What is the primary function of the inside router in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. detect attacks on ports that the firewall is configured to permit
B. provide connection state enforcement and detailed filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall
C. provide connectivity to the LAN Module
D. provide Layer 3 separation

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
Which of the following is not a critical element of Cisco Self Defending Network strategy?
A. SAFE
B. threat defense system
C. secure connectivity
D. trust and identity management

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
What is an example of a trust model?
A. NTFS
B. NFS
C. NTP
D. NOS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
What two modules are in the SAFE SMR small network design? Choose two.
A. edge
B. Internet
C. corporate Internet
D. campus

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. Syslog hosts
B. corporate servers
C. Layer 3 switches
D. firewalls
E. VPN Concentrator
F. WAN router

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 113
What services does EAP provide?
A. EAP provides wireless gateway and complementary code keying.
B. EAP provides centralized authentication and dynamic key distribution.
C. EAP provides open authentication and shared key distribution
D. EAP provides message integrity check and wireless domain service

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
According to SAFE SMR guidelines, what type of VPN uses primarily Cisco VPN optimized routers?
A. intranet to extranet
B. site-to-site
C. extranet to remote users
D. intranet to remote users

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 116
What is the difference in implementation between the edge router and the ISP router in the SAFE SMR medium network design?
A. The ISP router is configured for rate limiting.
B. The edge router is configured for rate limiting.
C. The ISP router is configured for more aggressive rate limiting.
D. The edge router is configured for more aggressive rate limiting.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
What is the primary function of the VPN Concentrator in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. provide connection state enforcement and detailed filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall
B. provide secure connectivity to the LAN Module
C. provide secure connectivity to the midsize network for remote users
D. provide secure connectivity to the campus module
E. provide secure connectivity to the Internet or ISP network

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
Which are attack mitigation roles for the software access option in the SAFE SMR remote user network environment? Choose two.
A. basic Layer 7 filtering
B. authenticate remote site
C. host DoS mitigation
D. terminate IPSec
E. stateful packet filtering

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 119
Which version of PIX introduced support for the VPN accelerator card?
A. version 4.0
B. version 4.3
C. version 5.0
D. version 5.3

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
How many transform sets can be included in a crypto map on a PIX Firewall?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. unlimited number

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 40
If you need to choose between using integrated functionality in a network device versus using a specialized function appliance, first and foremost you must make your decision based on:
A. The capacity and functionality of the appliance.
B. The integration advantage of the device.
C. Ease of implementation, use and the maintenance of the system.
D. Limiting the complexity of the design.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The integrated functionality is often attractive because you can implement it on existing equipment, or because the features can interoperate with the rest of the device to provide a better functional solution. Appliances are often used when the depth of functionality required is very advanced or when performance needs require using specialized hardware. Make your decisions based on the capacity and functionality of the appliance versus the integration advantage of the device. Ref: Safe White papers; 4 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 41
What are two advantages of using integrated systems and appliances? (Choose two)
A. Achieve better performance.
B. Implement on existing equipment.
C. Achieve better interoperability.
D. Improved manageability.
E. Increased feature functionality.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: At many points in the network design process, you need to choose between using integrated functionality in a network device versus using a specialized functional appliance. The integrated functionality is often attractive because you can implement it on existing equipment, or because the features can interoperate with the rest of the device to provide a better functional solution. Ref: Safe White papers; Page 4 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 42
The security team at Certkiller Inc. is working on private VLANs. What are private VLANs?
A. Private VLANs are tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 3, turning broadcast segments into non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments.
B. Private VLANs are tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 2, turning non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments into broadcast segments.
C. Private VLANs are tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 3, turning non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments into broadcast segments.
D. Private VLANs are tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 2, turning broadcast segments into non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Within an existing VLAN, private VLANs provide some added security to specific network applications. Private VLANs work by limiting which ports within a VLAN can communicate with other ports in the same VLAN. Isolated ports within a VLAN can communicate only with promiscuous ports. Community ports can communicate only with other members of the same community and promiscuous ports. Promiscuous ports can communicate with any port. This is an effective way to mitigate the effects of a single compromised host. Reference: Safe White papers; Page 5 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 43
You are the security administrator at Certkiller Inc. and you are working on installing IDS in the network. What IDS guidelines should be allowed according to SAFE SMR?
A. An IDS guideline is to use TCP shunning as opposed to TCP resets.
B. An IDS guideline is to use shunning no longer than 15 minutes.
C. An IDS guideline is to use shunning on only TCP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than UDP.
D. An IDS guideline is to use shunning on only UDP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than TCP.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To mitigate the risks of shunning, you should generally use it only on TCP traffic, which is much more

difficult to successfully spoof than UDP. Reference: Safe White papers; 8 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 44
You are the administrator at Certkiller Inc. and you working on shunning attacks to the network. When shunning, why should the shun length be kept short?
A. You should keep it short to eliminate blocking traffic from an invalid address that was spoofed previously.
B. You should keep it short to prevent unwanted traffic from being routed.
C. You should keep it short to prevent TCP resets from occurring.
D. You should keep it short to eliminate blocking traffic from a valid address that was spoofed previously.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To mitigate the risks of shunning, you should generally use it only on TCP traffic, which is much more difficult to successfully spoof than UDP. Use it only in cases where the threat is real and the chance that the attack is a false positive is very low. Also consider setting the shun length very short. This setup will block the user long enough to allow the administrator to decide what permanent action (if any) he/she wants to take against that IP address. However, in the interior of a network, many more options exist. With effectively deployed RFC 2827 filtering, spoofed traffic should be very limited. Also, because customers are not generally on the internal network, you can take a more restrictive stance against internally originated attack attempts. Another reason for this is that internal networks do not often have the same level of stateful filtering that edge connections possess. As such, IDS needs to be more heavily relied upon than in the external environment. Reference: Safe White papers; 8 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 45
You the administrator at Certkiller Inc and you are doing research on the type of attacks that occur in the network. What type of attack typically exploits intrinsic characteristics in the way your network operates?
A. Attacks to the network
B. Attacks to the router
C. Attacks to the switch
D. Attacks to the hosts

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Network attacks are among the most difficult attacks to deal with because they typically take advantage of an intrinsic characteristic in the way your network operates. These attacks include Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and Media Access Control (MAC)-based Layer 2 attacks, sniffers, and distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks. Ref: Safe White papers 6 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 46
You are the security administrator at Certkiller Inc. working configuring an IDS. Which IDS guideline should be followed, according to SAFE SMR?
A. According to SAFE SMR, use UDP resets more often than shunning, because UDP traffic is more difficult to spoof.
B. According to SAFE SMR, use TCP resets no longer than 15 minutes.
C. According to SAFE SMR, use UDP resets no longer than 15 minutes.
D. According to SAFE SMR, use TCP resets more often than shunning, because TCP traffic is more difficult to spoof.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: As the name implies, TCP resets operate only on TCP traffic and terminate an active attack by sending TCP reset messages to the attacking and attacked host. Because TCP traffic is more difficult to spoof, you should consider using TCP resets more often than shunning. Reference: Safe White papers; 8 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 47
Kathy the security administrator at Certkiller Inc. is working on security management. What type of management provides the highest level of security for devices?
A. The highest level is out of band
B. The highest level is device level
C. The highest level is in-band
D. The highest level is proxy level

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: “the “out-of-band” (OOB) management architecture described in SAFE Enterprise provides the highest levels of security” Reference: Safe White papers; Page 9 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 48
Which IDS guideline should be followed, according to SAFE SMR?
A. use UDP resets more often than shunning, because UDP traffic is more difficult to spoof
B. use TCP resets more often than shunning, because TCP traffic is more difficult to spoof
C. use TCP resets no longer than 15 minutes
D. use UDP resets no longer than 15 minutes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Because TCP traffic is more difficult to spoof, you should consider using TCP resets more often than shunning – TCP resets operate only on TCP traffic and terminate an active attack by sending a TCP reset to both the attacker and the attacked host. Reference: Cisco Courseware p.3-27
QUESTION 49
You have hired a new security administrator for your organization. He calls you in the middle of the night and says “I am receiving too many positives” What is talking about?
A. Alarms from the Intrusion Sensor are detected by illegitimate traffic.
B. Alarms from the Intrusion Sensor are detected by legitimate traffic.
C. Alarms from the Intrusion Sensor are detected-without any further action.
D. Alarms from the Intrusion Sensor are detected and logged.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Positives – are alarms that are detected and logged. False-positives are defined as alarms caused by legitimate traffic or activity. False negatives are attacks that the IDS system fails to see.
QUESTION 50
What is the most likely target during an attack?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Host
D. Firewall

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The most likely target during an attack, the host presents some of the most difficult challenges from a security perspective. There are numerous hardware platforms, operating systems, and applications, all of which have updates, patches, and fixes available at different times. Ref: Safe White papers; Page 6 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 51
When shunning, why should the shun length be kept short?
A. To eliminate blocking traffic from an invalid address that as spoofed previously.
B. To eliminate blocking traffic from a valid address that was spoofed previously.
C. To prevent unwanted traffic from being routed.
D. To prevent TCP resets from occurring.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: This setup will block the user long enough to allow the administrator to decide what permanent action (if any) he/she wants to take against that IP address. Ref: Safe White papers; 8 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 52
Which IDS guideline should be followed according to SAFE SMR?
A. Use UDP resets more often than shunning, because UDP traffic is more difficult to spoof.
B. Use TCP resets more often than shunning, because TCP traffic is more difficult to spoof.
C. Use TCP resets no longer than 15 minutes.
D. Use UDP resets no longer than 15 minutes.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: As the name implies, TCP resets operate only on TCP traffic and terminate an active attack by sending TCP reset messages to the attacking and attacked host. Because TCP traffic is more difficult to spoof, you should consider using TCP resets more often than shunning. Ref: Safe White papers; 8 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 53
What type of attack typically exploits an intrinsic characteristic in the way your network operates?
A. Route attacks
B. Switch attacks
C. Network attacks
D. Host attacks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Network attacks are among the most difficult attacks to deal with because they typically take advantage of an intrinsic characteristic in the way your network operates. These attacks include Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and Media Access Control (MAC)-based Layer 2 attacks, sniffers, and distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks. Ref: Safe White papers 6 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 54
Which type of management architecture described in SAFE Enterprise offers the best level of security?
A. In-band
B. Out-of-band
C. Proxy
D. All answers are incorrect.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: “the “out-of-band” (OOB) management architecture described in SAFE Enterprise provides the highest levels of security” Ref: Safe White papers; Page 9 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 55
accesslist 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any is an example of an ACL entry to filter what type of addresses?
A. RFC 1918
B. RFC 1920
C. RFC 2728
D. RFC 2827

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
! RFC 1918 filtering. Note network 172.16.x.x was not included in the ! filter here since it is used to

simulate the ISP in the lab. ! access-list 103 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any access-list 103 deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any Reference: SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks Page 47
QUESTION 56
What type of management provides the highest level of security for devices?
A. Device level
B. In-band
C. Out of band
D. Proxy level

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: “the “out-of-band” (OOB) management architecture described in SAFE Enterprise provides the highest levels of security” Ref: Safe White papers; Page 9 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 57
The security wheel starts with Secure. What are the initials of the other 3 steps?
A. LMR
B. RTM
C. MTI
D. TIT

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Step 1. – Secure Step 2. – Monitor Step 3. – Test Step 4. – Improve Ref: Cisco Secure PIX Firewalls (Ciscopress) Page 10
QUESTION 58
Which three statements about the monitoring stage of the Security Wheel are true? (Choose three)
A. It detects violations to the security policy.
B. New security policies are created during this stage.
C. It involved system auditing and real-time intrusion detection.
D. It involves the use of security assessments and vulnerability scanning.
E. Adjustments are made to the security policy as security vulnerabilities and risks are identified.
F. It validates the security implementation in step 1.

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Detecting violations in your security policy involves monitoring hosts and network traffic to determine when violations occur. Manual monitoring is usually accomplished by utilizing the audit logging capabilities provided by the host operating system. Automatic monitoring involves watching network traffic to determine whether unauthorized activities are occurring on the network. This level of monitoring can be accomplished through the use of Cisco Secure IDS. Reference: Cisco Secure Intrusion Detection System (Ciscopress) Page 42 Reference: Cisco Courseware page 2-9
QUESTION 59
What are three steps of the Security Wheel? (Choose three)
A. Improve
B. Log
C. Maintain
D. Test
E. Secure
F. Report

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Security Wheel breaks network security into four separate phases:

*
Securing

*
Monitoring

*
Testing

*
Improving Reference: Cisco Secure Intrusion Detection System (Ciscopress) Page 35
QUESTION 60
You are the administrator at Certkiller Inc. and you are working on extranet VPNs. What service do extranet VPNs provide?
A. Extranet VPNs provide link network resources with third-party vendors and business partners.
B. Extranet VPNs provide link corporate headquarters to remote offices.
C. Extranet VPNs provide link telecommuters and mobile users to corporate network resources.
D. Extranet VPNs provide link private networks to public networks.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Extranet VPNs refer to connections between a company and its business partners. Access between sites should be tightly controlled by both entities at their respective sites. Reference: Safe White papers; Page 76 SAFE: Extending the Security Blueprint to Small, Midsize, and Remote-User Networks
QUESTION 61
The security team at Certkiller Inc. is working on the SAFE SMR. What is an assumption of SAFE SMR?
A. SAFE SMR does not assume applications and OS security.
B. Implementing SAFE SMR guarantees a secure environment.
C. The security policy is already in place.
D. Network contains only Cisco devices.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: SAFE SMR makes the following assumptions: 1) The security policy is already in place 2) SAFE does not guarantee a secure environment 3) Application and operating system vulnerabilities are not comprehensively covered Reference: Cisco SAFE Implementation Courseware version 1.1 Page 3-6 Note: If select two then answer would be: A, C
QUESTION 62
Which is a component of Cisco security solutions?
A. Secure connectivity
B. Secure solution
C. Secure availability
D. Secure productivity

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: Cisco Courseware p.3-4

QUESTION 63
Which three Cisco components encompass secure connectivity? (Choose three)
A. Cisco IDS Sensors
B. Cisco PIX Firewalls
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco VPN Connectors
E. Cisco IOS IDS
F. Cisco IOS VPN

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Secure connectivity – Virtual private network (VPN) 1) Cisco VPN Concentrators 2) Cisco PIX Firewalls 3) Cisco IOS VPN Reference: Cisco Courseware p.4-3
QUESTION 64
Which two Cisco components encompass secure management? (Choose two)
A. Cisco VPN Concentrators
B. CiscoWorks
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco PIX Firewalls
E. Web Device Managers
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which statement about SAFE SMR principles is true?
A. SAFE SMR principles are based on Cisco products and features.
B. SAFE SMR principles are not necessarily device specific.
C. SAFE SMR principles are device specific.
D. SAFE SMR principles allow you to guarantee network security.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Cisco SAFE SMR principles tries to go away from the usual Device Specific design templates out there but it is still based on cisco and partner products. To quote: SAFE “Its not a device!” SAFE was created by Cisco to help designers of network security; its a design philosophy that utilizes Cisco and Cisco partner products. SAFE SMR takes a threat-mitigation-centric approach to security design instead of the more common device-centric design approach. I would go with A on this one. Could have been B, but i know how Cisco think; they like to promote their own products in their tests.
QUESTION 66
Which two Cisco components encompass intrusion protection? (Choose two)
A. Cisco VPN Concentrators
B. Cisco IDS Sensors
C. Cisco IDS Access Point
D. Cisco IOS IDS
E. Cisco Wireless IDS

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Cisco routers with IOS IDS features Cisco Secure IDS Sensors Reference: Cisco Threat Response User Guide

This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from Cisco 642-541. Cisco 642-541 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help Cisco 642-541 Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as Cisco 642-541 exam day nears.