Index

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QUESTION 41
Which type of certificate is recommended in a high-availability Cisco NAM configuration for the service IP Address?
A. SSL private Certificate
B. SSL public Certificate
C. Temporary Certificate
D. CA-signed Certificate

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Which three components compromise a Cisco NAC Appliance Solution? (Choose three.)
A. A Linux Server for in-band or out-of-band network admission control
B. A Linux Server for Centralized Management of network admission servers
C. A NAC-enabled Cisco Router
D. A Read-only Client Operating on an endpoints devices
E. A NAC-enabled Cisco Switch

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
SIMULATION
Network topology exhibit:
Cisco Clean Access Manager Exhibit:

You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Please study the topology exhibit carefully. Also examine the Cisco Clean Access Manager Exhibit. Certkiller .com has implemented a Cisco NAC Appliance solution. The internal server Certkiller C has been set up to provide HTTP and HTTPS services only. These services are only available for Certkiller .com internal users. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, has asked you to provide the following configuration tasks:
*
define a NAC Appliance IP-based traffic policy for the “Temporary Role”

*
configure the policy so that it is able to access this remediation server over HTTP and HTTPS for clients on the 10.158.10.0, 255.255.255.0 subhet.

*
after the configuration has been completed you must be able to launch the link to access the remediation server from the Certkiller B client computer.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1.) Select “User Roles”
2.) At “Temporary Role” klick “Add Policy”
3.) Enter the Following Values:
Priority: 1
Action: Allow
State: Enabled
Category: IP
Protocol: TCP / 6 ( see
http://www.iana.org/assignments/protocol-numbers/ ) Untrusted: 10.158.10.0 / 255.255.255.0 / *
Trusted: 172.162.7.100 / 255.255.255.255 / 80,443 Klick “Add Policy”

QUESTION 44
A search of available switches has been performed and a list of switches is presented. Which two SNMP attributes need to match what is configured in the Cisco switch profile for a listed switch to be added to the Cisco NAM? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP Trap
B. SNMP write community String
C. SNMP Write Version
D. SNMP read version
E. SNMP read community String

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
After you implement a network scan and view the report, you notice that a plug-in did not access any of it’s dependent plug-ins. What did you forget to do?
A. Install dependent plug-ins when you updated the Cisco NAC Appliance plug-in library
B. Configure dependent plug-on support when you mapped the Nessus scan check to the Nessus plug-in rule
C. Load the dependent plug-ins for that plug-in in the Plug-in updates form
D. Enable the Dependent Plug-in check box on the General Tab form

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
In a Cisco NAM high-availability configuration, when does the secondary Cisco NAM take over?
A. When the IP-based heartbeat signal fails to be transmitted and received within a certain time period
B. When the UDP heartbeat signal fails to be transmitted on the serial heartbeat connection between failover peers
C. When the UDP heartbeat signal is not transmitted and received within a certain time period
D. When the timeout value is exceeded during data-mirroring activities

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
When the Cisco NAS is configured for Windows Active Directory SSO to which component in a Cisco NAC Appliance solution does the client make a request for a Kerberos Service ticket?
A. Microsoft Windows Active Directory Server
B. Cisco NAM
C. Cisco NAS
D. Cisco NAA

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
You are implementing switch management in a Cisco NAM for out-of-band deployment. Once communication between the switch and the Cisco NAM has been verified, what is configured next?
A. Configure the Switches to use the appropriate SNMP settings
B. Configure group, switch and port profiles on the Cisco NAM
C. Add the switches that you want to control to the Cisco NAM domain
D. Configure the Cisco NAM SNMP receiver settings

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Based on the Boolean order of precedence, how would Cisco NAC Appliance evaluate the following rule? AdAwareLogRecent&(NorAVProcesslsActiveymAVProcesslsActive)
A. (The Norton Antivirus is active and there is a recent Ad Aware log entry) or ( The Symantec antivirus process is active)
B. There is a recent Ad ware log entry, the Norton Antivirus is active and the Symantec antivirus process is active
C. There is a recent Ad Aware log entry or the Norton Antivirus is active or the Symantec Antivirus Process is active
D. (Either the Norton Antivirus or the Symantec Antivirus process is active) and (there is a recent Ad Aware log entry)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
A small public library wants to implement network admission control for their public wireless network and their internal wired network. Their network contains switches from a variety of vendors. Which Cisco NAC Appliance solution would best suit this client?
A. An out-of-band Cisco NAS deployment with a Cisco NAM Cluster
B. A Hybrid solution using in-band Cisco NAS for the wireless and out-of-band Cisco NAS for the wired Deployment
C. An in-band Cisco NAS deployment and a Cisco NAM
D. A Combination of an out-of-band and an in-band Cisco NAS deployment with a Cisco NAM Cluster

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which Cisco NAC appliance out-of-band solution statement is correct?
A. Access switch to Cisco NAM configuration and status change messages are communicated via a proprietary protocol
B. The Swichport Access and authentication VLAN information is sent to the access switch from the Cisco NAM
C. As a laptop device accesses the Cisco NAC Appliance network, the access switch sends the device MAC address to the Cisco NAS
D. All client traffic flows through the CAS while access switch VLAN management is performed out of band

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
In an edge deployment of an in-band virtual-gateway Cisco NAC Appliance solution, how does the Cisco NAS ensure that authenticated client traffic arrives at the correct default gateway?
A. Managed subnets ensure that devices on different untrusted VLANs arrive at the correct default gateways on the trusted side
B. After authentication, the Cisco NAA using its cached IP Addresses, supplies the IP Address of the Correct gateway to the Cisco NAS
C. VLAN trunks are used to aggregate the traffic form the managed subnets to the Cisco NAS before forwarded to their respective gateways on the Layer 3 switch or router
D. Cisco NAS interface are connected to trunked ports to provide VLAN passthrough to the correct gateway

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Why are managed subnets configure in out-of-band virtual gateway mode?
A. Configures the Cisco NAS to map the managed subnet to the proper access VLAN
B. Configure the Cisco NAS with an IP Address in the untrusted VLAN that Cisco NAS can use to send ARP request in that particular VLAN
C. Configure the Cisco NAM management subnet so that all the Cisco NAM initiated traffic will be sent out on the proper management subnet
D. Configure the Cisco NAS management subnet so that all the Cisco NAS initiated traffic will sent out of the proper management subnet

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
A CA-signed certificate is returned from the CA authority and the private key on which the CA certificate is based no longer matches the one in the Cisco NAS. What should the administrator do?
A. Regenerate the certificates based on the FQDN rather than using the service ip address of the NAM
B. Import the single root CA or intermediate CA to .chain.crt in the admin console
C. Edit the Certificate files directly in the file system
D. Reimport the old private key and then install the CA-signed certificate

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
In a Cisco NAC Appliance Windows Active Directory SSO Deployment, what are the cached credentials and Kerberos TGT from the client-machine Windows login used for?
A. They are used to validate the user authentication and access with the Cisco NAM
B. They are used to validate the user with the Cisco NAS
C. They are used to validate user access with the Cisco NAA
D. They are used to validate the user authentication with eh backend Windows Active Directory Server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
A college network administrator wants to restrict access to specific; targeted subnets by role such as student, administration, faculty and guest roles. How would this be accomplished using the Cisco NAM?
A. Define a bandwidth policy for each role that specifies the target subnets
B. Define extended Access-Control-list templates and apply each template to a specific user role
C. Define a host-based traffic control policy for each role that specifies the target subnets
D. Define an IP-Based traffic Control Policy for each role that specifies the target subnets

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
When trying to restrict a guest role to a specific library server using a specific protocol, such as HTTP, the administrator would create which type of policy?
A. Application-based Access Policy
B. IP-Based Traffic Control Policy
C. Role-Based Access Policy
D. Host-Based Control Policy
E. Host-Based Traffic Policy

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
In a Layer 3 out-of-band deployment, which Cisco NAC Appliance component provides the Client-Machie IP Address to MAC address mapping?
A. Cisco NAS
B. Cisco Trust Agent
C. Cisco NAM
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco NAA

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
The NAS is configured to autogenerate an IP Address pool of 30 subnets with a netmask of /30, beginning at address 192.168.10.0. Which IP Address is leased to the end-user host on the second subnet?
A. 192.168.10.6
B. 192.168.10.5
C. 192.168.10.4
D. 192.168.10.7

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Exhibit:

Your work as an network engineer at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. From a Drop-Down menu, profiles are applied to each managed port. Before a profile can be applied, where are the client access and authentication VLAN profile parameters to configured?
A. Controlled VLAN profile
B. Access Control profile
C. Switch Profile
D. VLAN Mapping Profile
E. Port Profile

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 40
In an edge deployment of an in-band virtual-gateway Cisco NAC Appliance solution, how does the Cisco NAS ensure that authenticated client traffic arrives at the correct default gateway?
A. VLAN trunks are used to aggregate the traffic from the managed subnets to the Cisco NAS before being forwarded to their respective gateways on the Layer 3 switch or router.
B. Managed subnets ensure that devices on different untrusted VLANs arrive at the correct default gateways on the trusted side.
C. Cisco NAS interfaces are connected to trunked ports to provide VLAN passthrough to the correct gateway.
D. After authentication, the Cisco NAA, using its cached IP addresses, supplies the IP address of the correct gateway to the Cisco NAS.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
What must be done to upgrade a Cisco NAC Appliance implementation to take advantage of a major release of NAC Appliance?
A. Upgrade the Cisco NAM servers. When the Cisco NAM servers come on line, Cisco NAS upgrades will occur automatically.
B. First upgrade the Cisco NAM servers, bring the Cisco NAM servers on line, and then upgrade the Cisco NAS servers.
C. Upgrade the Cisco NAM servers and Cisco NAS servers concurrently.
D. First upgrade the Cisco NAS servers, bring the Cisco NAS on line, and then upgrade the Cisco NAM servers.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
In a Cisco NAM high-availability configuration, when does the secondary Cisco NAM take over?
A. when the UDP heartbeat signal is not transmitted and received within a certain time period
B. when the timeout value is exceeded during data-mirroring activities
C. when the IP-based heartbeat signal fails to be transmitted and received within a certain time period
D. when the UDP heartbeat signal fails to be transmitted on the serial heartbeat connection between failover peers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
When trying to restrict a guest role to a specific library server using a specific protocol, such as HTTP, the administrator would create which type of policy?
A. application-based access policy
B. IP-based traffic control policy
C. host-based control policy
D. role-based access policy
E. host-based traffic policy

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44
What is the local user account primarily used for?
A. for users who acquire temporary access or the normal login role
B. for users who acquire the quarantine access role
C. for testing or for guest user accounts
D. for administrator access

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. In a real IP out-of-band solution, what are the correct VLAN numbers for callouts A and B? (Choose two.)

A. A=(VLAN)2
B. A=(VLAN)10
C. A=(VLAN)31
D. B=(VLAN)2
E. B=(VLAN)10
F. B=(VLAN)31

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
What method is used to pass traffic from the client to the Cisco NAS in an in-band central virtual-gateway L2 deployment?
A. use the Cisco NAM downloadable ACLs to allow or block traffic at the access switch
B. use different DHCP addressing and port bouncing to allow or block client traffic
C. use VLAN trunks to aggregate the traffic from the client subnets and configure VLAN mapping between the Auth and Access VLANs
D. use static routes
E. use policy-based routing

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
When trying to restrict a guest-role end user to a host that has multiple or dynamic IP addresses, the administrator would create which type of policy?
A. IP-based access policy
B. server-based exemption policy
C. address-based inclusion policy
D. host-based traffic control policy

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Where is a local user validated?
A. at the Cisco NAA
B. at the Cisco NAM
C. at the Cisco NAS
D. at the authentication server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Which interface is always used by Cisco NAM failover peers to support inter-peer connections?
A. the serial connection
B. the eth0 interface
C. the second Ethernet port
D. the eth1 interface

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
When the Cisco NAS is configured for Windows Active Directory SSO, to which component in a Cisco NAC Appliance solution does the client make a request for a Kerberos service ticket?
A. Cisco NAA
B. Microsoft Windows Active Directory server
C. Cisco NAS
D. Cisco NAM

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
In the Cisco NAM, under Administration > User Pages > Login Page, custom login pages can be created based on which three things? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. Cisco NAS
C. subnet
D. user role
E. operating system
F. Cisco NAM

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
What does the secondary Cisco NAM do after it reboots from its initial configuration?
A. takes over as the active Cisco NAM if the secondary Cisco NAM has a higher priority
B. switches to active mode, enabling load sharing with the primary Cisco NAM
C. automatically sends a message to all Cisco NAS servers, identifying itself as the secondary Cisco NAM
D. automatically synchronizes its database with the primary Cisco NAM
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
In an out-of-band Cisco NAC Appliance high-availability deployment, why must port security be disabled between the switch interfaces to which the Cisco NAS and Cisco NAM are connected?
A. Port security can interfere with Cisco NAS high availability and DHCP delivery.
B. Port security creates time-based latency, causing erratic SSL communication.
C. Port security interferes with SNMP message delivery between Cisco NAM failover peers.
D. Port security interferes with UDP heartbeat signals.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
If an administrator configures interfaces E0, E1, and S0 to support NAM high-availability failover, what information is exchanged over these interfaces?
A. NAM run-time data activities and UDP heartbeat signals
B. NAM run-time data activities, UDP heartbeat signals and backup and recover database snapshots
C. NAM run-time data activities and IP-based heartbeat signals
D. NAM run-time data activities, UDP heartbeat signals, redundant heartbeat signals

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
In Cisco NAC Appliance solutions, which statement is correct regarding devices on the certified list?
A. Devices that pass the Cisco NAA requirements are automatically added to the exempt device list.
B. Devices manually added to the certified device list are automatically deleted when the device list-clearing timer expires.
C. A device is not required to be rescanned at the next login as long as its MAC address is in the certified list.
D. To remove an exempt device from the certified list, click the Clear Certified Device button.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit. From a drop-down menu, profiles are applied to each managed port. Before a profile can be applied, where are the client access and authentication VLAN profile parameters configured?

A. controlled VLAN profile
B. access control profile
C. port profile
D. switch profile
E. VLAN mapping profile

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
What are the two pairs of key attributes of traffic policies? (Choose two.)
A. directional and hierarchical
B. global and local
C. standard and extensible
D. stateful and stateless
E. rule- and requirement-based

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
In an out-of-band real IP gateway deployment, how can you limit access to the network for certain types of users after they have been authenticated?
A. by using traffic policy to restrict the network access
B. by assigning ports to specific VLANs and then assigning users to specific roles that map to those VLANs
C. by using SNMP to control client devices directly from the Cisco NAM
D. by limiting the amount of bandwidth that is assigned to their user role

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
In a Layer 3 out-of-band deployment, which Cisco NAC Appliance component provides the client-machine IP address to MAC address mapping?
A. Cisco NAM
B. Cisco NAA
C. Cisco Security Agent
D. Cisco Trust Agent
E. Cisco NAS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
What is an advantage of a Layer 2 out-of-band virtual gateway deployment using port-based VLAN assignment?
A. improves security as the client IP address must change when the port is changed from the authentication VLAN to the access VLAN
B. supports IP telephony for end users who are multi-hops away
C. supports wireless LAN networks providing bandwidth throttling
D. simplifies implementation as client IP addresses are not changed
E. manages bandwidth and session time for users during authentication

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 30
Which Cisco NAC Appliance Component performs network scanning?
A. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
B. Cisco NAC Trust Agent
C. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
D. Cisco NAC Appliance Agent

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
When the Cisco NAS is configured for Windows Active Directory SSO to which component in a Cisco NAC Appliance solution does the client make a request for a Kerberos Service ticket?
A. Cisco NAS
B. Cisco NAM
C. Microsoft Windows Active Directory Server
D. Cisco NAA

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
What are the two types of traffic policies that apply to user roles? (Choose two.)
A. Host-Based
B. Server-Based
C. IP-Based
D. Manager-Based
E. VLAN-Based
F. Peer-Based

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which Cisco NAS Appliance out-of-band solution statement is correct?
A. The switchport access and authentication VLAN information is sent to the Access switch from the Cisco NAM
B. As a laptop device accesses the Cisco NAC Appliance network, the access switch sends the device MAC address to the Cisco NAS
C. Access switch to Cisco NAM configuration and status change messages are communicated via a proprietary protocol
D. All Client traffic flows through the CAS while access switch VLAN management is performed out of band

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34
What method is used to pass traffic from the client to the Cisco NAS in an in-band Virtual-Gateway L2 deployment?
A. Use VLAN traffic to aggregate the traffic from the client subnets and configure VLAN mapping between the auth and Access VLANS
B. Use Policy-Based Routing
C. Use static routes
D. User the Cisco NAM downloadable ACLs to allow or block traffic at the access switch
E. Use different DHCP addressing and port bouncing to allow or block client traffic

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which two functions can a Cisco NAC Appliance Agent be configured to perform? (Choose two.)
A. Perform registry, service and application checks
B. Detect the presence of worms and viruses before permitting network access to an end user
C. Initiate periodic virus scans
D. Check for up-to-date antivirus and antispam files
E. Quarantine an end user until the client machine complies with company policy

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which default Administrator group has delete permissions?
A. Admin
B. Full-Control
C. Help-Desk
D. Add-Edit

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
What does the secondary Cisco NAM do after it reboots from its initial configuration?
A. Takes over as the active Cisco NAM if the secondary Cisco NAM has a higher priority
B. Automatically sends a message to all Cisco NAS Servers, identifying itself as the secondary Cisco NAM
C. Automatically Synchronizes its database with the primary Cisco NAM
D. Switches to active mode, enabling load sharing with the primary Cisco NAM

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Exhibit:

Your work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. When logging in to a Cisco NAC Appliance solution, an end user is prompted for a username, password and provider. What should be entered in the provider drop-down filed shown in the exhibit?
A. The authentication NAS
B. The Authorization NAM
C. The external Authenticating server
D. The name of the ISP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
When Configuring the Cisco NAM to implement Cisco NAA requirement checking on client machines, what is the next step after configuring checks and rules?
A. Map rules to requirement
B. Configure Requirements
C. Configure Session Timeout and traffic policies
D. Require the use of the Cisco NAA
E. Retrieve updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40
What is an advantage of a Layer 2 out-of-band virtual gateway deployment using port-based VLAN assignment?
A. Manages bandwidth and session time for users during authentication
B. Supports IP Telephony for end users who are multi-hops away
C. Improves security as the Client IP address must change when the port is changed form the authentication VLAN to the access VLAN
D. Simplifies implementation as client IP addresses are not changed
E. Supports wireless LAN networks providing bandwidth throttling

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which type of certificate is recommended in a high-availability Cisco NAM configuration for the service IP Address?
A. SSL private Certificate
B. SSL public Certificate
C. Temporary Certificate
D. CA-signed Certificate

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Which three components compromise a Cisco NAC Appliance Solution? (Choose three.)
A. A Linux Server for in-band or out-of-band network admission control
B. A Linux Server for Centralized Management of network admission servers
C. A NAC-enabled Cisco Router
D. A Read-only Client Operating on an endpoints devices
E. A NAC-enabled Cisco Switch

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
SIMULATION
Network topology exhibit:
Cisco Clean Access Manager Exhibit:

You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. Please study the topology exhibit carefully. Also examine the Cisco Clean Access Manager Exhibit. Certkiller .com has implemented a Cisco NAC Appliance solution. The internal server Certkiller C has been set up to provide HTTP and HTTPS services only. These services are only available for Certkiller .com internal users. Your boss, Mrs. Certkiller, has asked you to provide the following configuration tasks:
*
define a NAC Appliance IP-based traffic policy for the “Temporary Role”

*
configure the policy so that it is able to access this remediation server over HTTP and HTTPS for clients on the 10.158.10.0, 255.255.255.0 subhet.

*
after the configuration has been completed you must be able to launch the link to access the remediation server from the Certkiller B client computer.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1.) Select “User Roles”
2.) At “Temporary Role” klick “Add Policy”
3.) Enter the Following Values:
Priority: 1
Action: Allow
State: Enabled
Category: IP
Protocol: TCP / 6 ( see
http://www.iana.org/assignments/protocol-numbers/ ) Untrusted: 10.158.10.0 / 255.255.255.0 / *
Trusted: 172.162.7.100 / 255.255.255.255 / 80,443 Klick “Add Policy”

QUESTION 44
A search of available switches has been performed and a list of switches is presented. Which two SNMP attributes need to match what is configured in the Cisco switch profile for a listed switch to be added to the Cisco NAM? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP Trap
B. SNMP write community String
C. SNMP Write Version
D. SNMP read version
E. SNMP read community String

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
After you implement a network scan and view the report, you notice that a plug-in did not access any of it’s dependent plug-ins. What did you forget to do?
A. Install dependent plug-ins when you updated the Cisco NAC Appliance plug-in library
B. Configure dependent plug-on support when you mapped the Nessus scan check to the Nessus plug-in rule
C. Load the dependent plug-ins for that plug-in in the Plug-in updates form
D. Enable the Dependent Plug-in check box on the General Tab form

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
In a Cisco NAM high-availability configuration, when does the secondary Cisco NAM take over?
A. When the IP-based heartbeat signal fails to be transmitted and received within a certain time period
B. When the UDP heartbeat signal fails to be transmitted on the serial heartbeat connection between failover peers
C. When the UDP heartbeat signal is not transmitted and received within a certain time period
D. When the timeout value is exceeded during data-mirroring activities

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
When the Cisco NAS is configured for Windows Active Directory SSO to which component in a Cisco NAC Appliance solution does the client make a request for a Kerberos Service ticket?
A. Microsoft Windows Active Directory Server
B. Cisco NAM
C. Cisco NAS
D. Cisco NAA

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
You are implementing switch management in a Cisco NAM for out-of-band deployment. Once communication between the switch and the Cisco NAM has been verified, what is configured next?
A. Configure the Switches to use the appropriate SNMP settings
B. Configure group, switch and port profiles on the Cisco NAM
C. Add the switches that you want to control to the Cisco NAM domain
D. Configure the Cisco NAM SNMP receiver settings

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Based on the Boolean order of precedence, how would Cisco NAC Appliance evaluate the following rule? AdAwareLogRecent&(NorAVProcesslsActiveymAVProcesslsActive)
A. (The Norton Antivirus is active and there is a recent Ad Aware log entry) or ( The Symantec antivirus process is active)
B. There is a recent Ad ware log entry, the Norton Antivirus is active and the Symantec antivirus process is active
C. There is a recent Ad Aware log entry or the Norton Antivirus is active or the Symantec Antivirus Process is active
D. (Either the Norton Antivirus or the Symantec Antivirus process is active) and (there is a recent Ad Aware log entry)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 25
A customer needs to configure a CAS E & M circuit that will support inbound and outbound DNIS and inbound ANI. Which configuration will accomplish this task?
A. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type fgd-eana
B. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type e&m-fgd
C. pri-group timeslots 1-24
D. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-24 type none
E. ds0-group 0 timeslots 1-31 type r2-digital r2-compelled ani
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 26
The D channel in ISDN is an example of which two signaling methods? (Choose two.)
A. in-band
B. gateway
C. CAS
D. CCS
E. out-of-band

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 27
Examine the example output. hostname GW1 !
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
interface Ethernet 0/0 ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id GK1-zone1.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.2 h323-gateway voip h323-id GW1 h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.1 ! dial-peer voice 1 voip destination-pattern 1212. session-target ras ! dial-peer voice 2 pots destination-pattern 2125551212 no register e164 ! end Choose the command that will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device.
A. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.1
B. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.2
C. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
D. gateway
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which statement best describes gatekeeper operation when the technology prefix is matched and the gatekeeper is using the technology prefix with hopoff?
A. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the hopoff zone, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command.
B. The gatekeeper only forwards the call to the hopoff zone if the zone prefix does not match.
C. The gatekeeper attempts to forward the call to the zone specified in the zone prefix command first, but if this fails, it will forward the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
D. The gatekeeper always forwards the call to the zone specified in the hopoff command.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 29
A new business in Great Britain needs to have a PSTN connection that will handle a maximum of 30 inbound and outbound calls at any given time. The customer only has
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
one slot available on the designated PSTN router. Which digital line type should be recommended?
A. QSIG
B. ISDN E1 PRI
C. ISDN BRI
D. ISDN T1 PRI
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30
Where would you assign COR lists in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. ephone
B. voice register dn
C. ephone-dn
D. voice register pool

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which two codes together make up the number that follows the E.164 recommendation numbering scheme? (Choose two.)
A. subscriber code
B. national destination code
C. country code
D. provider code

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which process changes an internal extension into a fully qualified external PSTN number before matching to a dial peer?
A. number expansion
B. digit masking
C. prefix extension
D. forward digits
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 33
Using a standalone IOS gateway, which three steps are necessary to implement COR? (Choose three.)
A. Configure COR lists.
B. Configure dial peers and assign COR lists.
C. Define COR labels.
D. Assign COR list to ephone-DN.
E. Configure COR lists on voice ports.
F. Configure SRST.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which dial plan characteristic shows the most obvious improvement by dropping a number translation step?
A. post-dial delay
B. availability
C. scalability
D. hierarchical design

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 35
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. All IP phones use SCCP. Fax machine F calls fax machine J. Which call setup signaling
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
statement is correct?
A. Gateway A signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals gateway B.
B. Fax F signals Fax J directly. Call setup is handled by the fax machines.
C. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the call. During the setup, the gateways query the gatekeeper for address resolution and call setup permission.
D. Gateway A processes the call and signals gateway B. Gateway B processes the request.
E. Gateway A signals the gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals gateway B.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 36
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. You have a client
that is testing a directory gatekeeper in the lab to provide address resolution between two different zones.
Two of the commands in the running-config output are incorrect.
Which two changes will correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

A. replace zone prefix GK-B 404 . . . . with zone prefix GK-B 404 . . . . . . .
B. replace zone prefix GK-A 770 . . . . . . . with zone prefix GK-A 770 . . . .
C. replace zone remote GK-B acme.com 172.16.14.99 1719 with Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 zone local GK-B acme.com 172.16.14.99 1719
D. replace zone local DGK acme.com with zone remote DGK acme.com
E. replace zone local GK-A acme.com 172.16.14.44 1719 with zone remote GK-A acme.com 172.16.14.44 1719

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 37
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Certkiller .com uses H.323 to place calls to their supplier RR Industries. Certkiller .com also has a voice connection to an ITSP for long distance over a SIP network. Which configuration should Certkiller use to deploy the CUBE?
A. voice service voip allow-connections h323 to h323 allow-connections h323 to sip allow-connections sip to h323
B. service voice voip allow-connections h323 to h323
allow-connections h323 to sip
allow-connections sip to sip
allow-connections sip to h323

C. service voice voip allow-connections h323 to h323 allow-connections h323 to sip
D. voice service voip allow-connections h323 to h323 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 allow-connections h323 to sip

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 38
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which protocol provides the necessary sequence numbers so that voice packets originating at R1 are played in the correct order at R5?
A. UDP
B. RTP
C. RTCP
D. LFI
E. CRTP

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 39
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. What is the minimum WAN bandwidth required to support three simultaneous VoIP calls in this network?
A. 51,600 bps
B. 19,200 bps
C. 247,200 bps
D. 79,200 bps

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 40
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which configuration option will allow communication between a voice-enabled router and a PBX?
A. voice port 1/0/0 signaling wink-start operation 4-wire auto-cut-through type 1
B. voice port 1/0/0 signaling immediate-start operation 4-wire type 5
C. voice port 1/0/0 signaling delay-start auto-cut-through operation 4-wire type 3 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
D. voice port 1/0/0 signaling wink-start operation 4-wire type 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 41
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on Certkiller 2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?
A. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5552.0
B. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination pattern 5552.0
C. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 55520
D. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 555

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 42
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Users are not able to complete a call from 678-555-1212 to 770-555-1111. What is the correct diagnosis for the problem?
A. incorrect destination-pattern in router 1
B. incorrect port statement in router 1 pots dial peer
C. missing no digit-strip on the voip dial peer in router 1
D. incorrect POTS dial-peer statement in router 2
E. incorrect session-target statement in router 2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 43
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. You have configured a gatekeeper and an IP-IP gateway on the same router. When you look at the output from the show gatekeeper endpoint command, the IP-IP gateway is not registered with the gatekeeper. What needs to be configured to resolve this issue?

A. You need to add a VoIP dial peer to the configuration.
B. You need to stop and restart the gateway.
C. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect IP address.
D. The h323-gateway voip id command has an incorrect gatekeeper ID and IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 44
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 Refer to the output from the debug h225 asn1 command in the exhibit. You have configured a gatekeeper with two local zones, hq and br. You want the gateway at the branch location to register with zone BR. What needs to be corrected in the branch gateway to resolve the issue?

A. Change the gatekeeper-id in the h323-gateway voip id command.
B. Change the IP address in the h323-gateway voip id command.
C. Add a zone remote for zone BR so the gateway can register with the correct zone.
D. Change the gatekeeper-id and the IP address in the h323-gateway voip id command. Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 45
Exhibit:

To hide its identity when initiating calls, Phone B requests that Server Certkiller B place its calls for it. What kind of device is Server Certkiller B?
A. user agent client
B. redirect
C. registrar
D. proxy
E. user agent server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 46
Exhibit:

Refer to the IOS configuration in the exhibit. How will the next incoming call be routed?
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
A. The call will be routed to a random available channel.
B. The call will be routed to the longest idle channel.
C. The call will be routed to the next available channel, starting from channel 1, hunting up toward channel
24.
D. The call will be routed to the least used channel.
E. The call will be routed to the next available channel, starting from channel 24, hunting down toward channel 1.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 47
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Enzo’s Bikes manufactures high end bicycle frames. Until recently they sold only to bicycle shops; however, now they are starting to sell to end users. They need a way to add two additional sales staff and ensure that the senior sales technician always gets the first call. Drew is the senior sales technician. Bob is the newest sales technician. Bob’s phone should always be the last one chosen for incoming sales calls, after Drew and James. Bob’s phone should be chosen first only when Drew and James are busy on calls. Select the correct dial-peer command set for Bob’s phone.
A. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 preference 2
B. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 preference firstlast
C. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 preference 3 huntstop
D. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
preference high

E. dial-peer voice 3 pots destination-pattern 5555110 preference 0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 48
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Three department managers share the directory number 3000. The Marketing manager’s phone is attached to port 1/1. The Engineering manager’s phone is attached to port 1/2. The Shipping manager’s phone is attached to port 1/3. In which situation would an incoming call ring on the Shipping manager’s phone?
A. None of the managers are on the phone.
B. The Engineering manager is on the phone.
C. The Marketing manager is on the phone.
D. The Shipping manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.
E. The Engineering manager and Marketing manager are on the phone.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 49
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. All IP phones use SCCP. Phone D calls phone G. Which statement is true about the audio path?
A. The first call leg terminates at gateway
B. The second call leg is from gateway A to phone G.
C. The first call leg terminates at gateway B. The second call leg is from gateway B to phone G.
D. The voice packets are routed through the gatekeeper.
E. The first call leg terminates at gateway
F. The second call leg is from gateway A to its termination at gateway B. The third call leg is from gateway B to phone G.
G. The voice packets are routed through the call agent.
H. The voice packets travel directly from phone to phone.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 50
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which two actions would be initiated by a UAS? (Choose two.)

A. contacts the user when a SIP invitation is received
B. returns a response on behalf of the user to the invitation originator
C. originates the REFER method to initiate call termination
D. originates the ACK method to indicate that it has received a response to an invitation
E. originates the INVITE method including a description of the session parameters

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 51
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

Refer to the H.323 message in the exhibit. What is the gateway doing with the gatekeeper?
A. full registration
B. initial registration
C. registration retry
D. lightweight registration

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 52
Exhibit:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. When extension 201-555-1000 dials 404-555-1200, how are the digits manipulated in R1 so that they are presented correctly at R2?
A. The outbound VoIP dial peer is matched and all digits are sent.
B. The digits 404-555 are stripped off before matching the outbound POTS dial peer.
C. R1 collects the 1200 and prepends the tie-line digits 404555. That number is matched to a VoIP dial peer and sent to the appropriate address.
D. The digits 404-555 are stripped off by the connection trunk and R2 receives only 1200.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 53
Exhibit: Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. All IP phones are
SCCP phones. Phone D makes an internal call to phone G. Which call setup signaling statement is true?

A. Phone D signals the call agent. The call agent processes the call and signals phone G.
B. Phone D signals gateway A, which processes the call and signals phone G.
C. Phone D signals phone G directly. Call setup is handled by the phones.
D. Phone D signals gateway B, which processes the call and signals phone G.
E. Phone D signals gatekeeper. The gatekeeper processes the call and signals phone G.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 54
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Your customers dial in to your company using a local number, and their calls cross the WAN to an IVR system. They are complaining that the IVR system does not always accept their input or may get it wrong. The IVR system has been checked and is working properly. What needs to be added to the dial peer on the incoming
H.323 gateway to correct this problem?
A. tech-prefix 1# Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
B. dtmf-relay h245-alphanumeric
C. codec g729ar8 bytes 30 D. no vad

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 55
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which message ID can be used to track this call from the requesting endpoint?
A. 8204
B. 49579
C. 1640003356
D. 10.100.100.100

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 56
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Your customer has connected an existing PBX to the IP network. The PBX users can
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436

make calls to other extensions on the PBX but are unable to call the test extension 2201. All other
applications on the IP network are working correctly. Compare the PBX system requirements to the
configuration for R1 in the exhibit.
Which configuration change will resolve the problem?

A. configure forward digits all in dial-peer 1 POTS
B. configure operation 4-wire and type 5 on voice-port 1/1/0
C. configure wink-start signaling on voice-port 1/1/0
D. configure operation 2-wire and type 5 on voice-port 1/1/0

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 57
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Select the recommended QoS configuration for the LAN segments of the network in the campus and branch office.
A. Configure a PQ with WRR. Use ACLs to classify voice control traffic. Isolate voice traffic in its own VLAN. Configure access switches to trust traffic from IP phones.
B. Configure WRR with voice as highest priority. Use ACLs to classify voice traffic. Isolate voice traffic in its own VLAN . Configure access switches to trust traffic from IP phones.
C. Configure a PQ with WRR. Use ACLs to classify voice traffic. Isolate voice traffic in its own VLAN. Configure access switches to trust traffic from IP phones.
D. Configure a PQ with voice control as highest priority. Use ACLs to classify voice control traffic. Isolate voice control traffic in its own VLAN . Configure access switches to trust voice control traffic from IP phones.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 58
Exhibit:

You work as a network administrator for Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. The Carmichael caller dials the site access code for Merrimack (6) followed by the four-digit extension number of the destination phone (0124). If the call is going to go across the IP WAN, which action will have to be taken?
A. Translate 50124 to 5125550124.
B. Do nothing because the site access code matches the last five digits of the target number.
C. Strip the site access code and prepend 1512555.
D. Strip the site access code, send four digits, then prepend the access code when it reaches the Merrimack gateway.
E. Strip the site access code and send four digits.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 59
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. You are required to establish Call Admission Control
between the two Cisco Unified Border Elements Cisco UBEs.
Some options may be used more than once.

Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
642-436
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 60

DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs Certkiller, is interested in voice port types. Match each type with the appropriate call.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 61

DRAG DROP
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Your boss, Mrs Certkiller, is interested in Gateway and CUBE features. Match the appropriate features of these.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 62
You have been asked to deploy a gatekeeper to support CUBE that will connect your organizational domain to the domain of an Internet Telephony Service Provider so that callers can reach the 407 area code. Which configuration will support this function?
A. gatekeeper zone local GKVIA Certkiller .com 192.168.10.1 zone remote GK407 ITSP.com 10.10.1.100 1719 invia GKVIA outvia GKVIA zone prefix GK407 407* no shutdown
B. gatekeeper zone local GKVIA Certkiller .com 192.168.10.1 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436 zone remote GK407 ITSP.com 10.10.1.100 1719 zone prefix KG407 407……….. no shutdown
C. gatekeeper zone local GKVIA Certkiller .com 192.168.10.1 zone remote GK407 ITSP.com 10.10.1.100 1719 invia KG407 outvia GK407 zone prefix GK407 407* no shutdown
D. gatekeeper zone local GKVIA Certkiller .com 192.168.10.1 zone remote GK407 ITSP.com 10.10.1.100 1719 invia outvia GKVIA zone prefix KG407 407* no shutdown

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 63
Choose the correct configuration command set that will allow the gateway in zone BR to register with the gatekeeper at HQ so that the gateway is placed in zone BR.
A. interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.2.120.1 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id br ipadr 10.1.110.2
h323-gateway voip h323-id brgw
B. interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.2.120.1 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id br ipadr 10.1.110.1 h323-gateway voip h323-id brgw
C. interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.2.120.1 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id br ip address 10.1.110.1 h323-gateway voip h323-id brgw ! gateway
D. interface fastethernet 0/0 ip address 10.2.120.1 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id hq ip address 10.1.110.1 h323-gateway voip h323-id brgw ! gateway Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not C: Splitting out the ip and address will not work, it needs to be ipaddr exactly.

QUESTION 64
Which CUBE configuration will support H.323 protocol interworking and address hiding?
A. voice services voip all-connections h323 to h323 media flow-around
B. voice services h323 to h323 h323 interworking media flow-through
C. voice service voip allow-connections h323 to r323
D. voice services h323 to h323 h323 interworking media flow-around

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 65
Which type of signaling is DTMF?
A. Supervisory
B. Route
C. Informational
D. Address
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Start dial supervision is the line protocol that defines how the equipment seizes the E&M trunk and passes the address signaling information such as dual tone multifrequency (DTMF) digits. Address Signaling Address signaling typically represents the digits dialed (called party’s number). There are two options used to pass address information. Either Pulse dial (rotary dialing) or Tone dial (DTMF) can be used. The default for Cisco routers and gateways is DTMF.
QUESTION 66
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
You have set up a complex dial plan using translation rules. The following translation rule has been configured. What output would correspond to the test translation-rule command? translation-rule 1 rule 0 ^0.. 215550210 rule 1 ^1.. 215550211 rule 2 ^2.. 215550212 rule 3 ^3.. 215550213 rule 4 ^4.. 215550214 rule 5 ^5.. 215550215 rule 6 ^6.. 215550216 rule 7 ^7.. 215550217 rule 8 ^8.. 215550218 rule 9 ^9.. 215550210
A. test translation-rule 1512 The replaced number: 21555021512
B. test translation-rule 1555 The replaced number: 55521555021
C. test translation-rule 1617 The replaced number: 61721555021
D. test translation-rule 1910 The replaced number: 21555021910

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: New Delhi(2-digit indial range) !— Only relevant “IOS translation rule” output is presented ! translation-rule 1 !– The “1” above is the tag for the set. rule 0 ^0. 1011000 rule 1 ^1. 1011001 rule 2 ^2. 1011002 rule 3 ^3. 1011003 rule 4 ^4. 1011004 rule 5 ^5. 1011005 rule 6 ^6. 1011006 rule 7 ^7. 1011007 rule 8 ^8. 1011008 rule 9 ^9. 1011009 ! !– These rules replace the first digit of a 2-digit number with the corresponding !– translation. The router looks for a 2-digit number starting with a leading . !– The caret, “^” ensures the match only happens at the start of the digit string
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
!– rather than any occurrence in a digit string. This ensures the router makes the !– translation only for the leading digits. By default, if an explicit match is made !– on a digit (in this case the first digit) the router replaces it with the new !– digits. Therefore, to keep the original numbering, the matched digit needs to be !– replaced with the same digit at the end of the modified string. Once the call !– comes in, the called number prepended with 101100 followed by the !– original 2 digits. ! voice-port 1/0:1 translate called 1 cptone IN compand-type a-law ! !– The translation rule is applied to the voice port where the !– call comes in to the router. When a call comes in from the !– telephone network towards the router, the called number !– is translated before it is matched on any dial peers. ! dial-peer voice 100 voip destination-pattern 101100.. session target ipv4:main site IP address ip precedence 5 dtmf-relay h245-alphanumeric ! !– The VoIP dial peer needs to be configured to match on the new numbering plan This output was captured from the NewDelhi router which shows the translation rules applied while dialing from the NewDelhi site. NewDelhi- Output !– It is possible to confirm the translation rules are working:!!NewDelhi#test translation-rule 1 99!– Original called number is “99”The replaced number: 10110099!– Translated to 8 digits
QUESTION 67
What is the optimal end-to-end delay that should be achieved in a VoIP network?
A. 20 ms
B. 100 ms
C. 150 ms
D. 400 ms

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
Delay Specifications

QUESTION 68
Which three are supervisory signals? (Choose three)
A. busy
B. on hook
C. off hook
D. call waiting
E. ring

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1.
Supervisory Signalling – electrical voltages and tones that can be heard are used to signify call status as follows:

2.
1. On-hook – produces an open circuit which does not allow any signalling, only the ringer can operate.
2.
Off-hook – lifting the handset closes the circuit and allows the telephone switch to send an audible dial tone to the receiver.

3.
Ringing – the switch sends a ringing voltage to the destination telephone as notification of an incoming call. Also an audible ringing tone is sent to the caller telephone to indicate that the call is progressing. This tone takes the form of a pattern called Cadence In Europe this Cadence takes the form of a double ring (duration of 0.4s separated by 0.2s) followed by two seconds of silence, whereas in the US it takes the form of two seconds of ring followed by four seconds of silence.
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing 642-436
QUESTION 69
What is the E.164 numbering plan?
A. A proprietary PBX number plan.
B. The IETF North American number plan.
C. The European PBX standard telephony number plan.
D. The ITU worldwide number plan.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Numbering Scheme The standard PSTN is a large, circuit-switched network. It uses a specific numbering scheme, which complies with theITU-T international public telecommunications numbering plan (E.164) recommendations. For example, in North America, the North American Numbering Plan (NANP) is used, which consists of an area code, an office code, and a station code. Area codes are assigned geographically, office codes are assigned to specific switches, and station codes identify a specific port on that switch. The format in North America is 1Nxx-Nxx-xxxx, with N = digits 2 through 9 and x = digits 0 through
9. Internationally, each country is assigned a one- to three-digit country code; the country’s dialing plan follows the country code. In Cisco’s voice implementations, numbering schemes are configured using the destination-pattern command. E.164 is an ITU-T recommendation which defines the international public telecommunication numbering plan used in the PSTN and some other data networks.
QUESTION 70
On the MOS scale, what does a 5 represent?
A. poor
B. fair
C. average
D. extra medium
E. excellent

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 11
In Mac OS X v10.4 the default Group and Others permissions for the Drop Box folder in a users Public folder are__________
A. Read only
B. Write only
C. Read & Write
D. No Access

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
When an administrator attempts o drag an application to the Applications folder, a message reports that the file was not moved because the folder, “Applications”, cannot be modified. Which step will correct this issue?
A. Log in with the Master Password.
B. Restart the computer and log in again.
C. Click the Repair Permissions button in Disk Utility
D. Add the administrator to the wheel group on the computer.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
You connect a USB DEVICE TO YOUR Macintosh keyboard, and see a error message that there is not enough poser available for this device. Which TWO steps could each resolve this problem?
A. Plug the device into a different USB port on the keyboard.
B. Restart the computer with the USB device still connected.
C. Plug the device into a USB port on the back of the computer.
D. Open System Profiler and search for a corrupted device driver.
E. Connect the device to external power rather than using bus power.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What is required when initially configuring a Bluetooth device, such as a cell phone, to pair with a computer running Mac OS X v10.4?
A. The computer or the device must be set to be Discoverable.
B. The computer and the device must have the sleep function disabled.
C. The computer and the device must be within line of sight of each other.
D. The computer or the device must be set to Require Network Authentication

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
What application includes synchronization software for Bluetooth-enabled cellular phones?
A. iSync
B. Setup Assistant
C. Bluetooth
D. Bluetooth Serial Utility

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
You are troubleshooting a volume connected via target disk mode. What could present a problem?
A. Target disk mode volumes are locked by default.
B. Target disk mode volumes have no files system journal.
C. Keychains and preferences must be unencrypted before they can be viewed.
D. Standard Mac OS X file ownership can be ignored, so files can be deleted accidentally.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
In Mac OS X v10.4 a non-administrator user Lind, can sore her files in _________________
A. /System
B. /User/Linda
C. /Home/Linda
D. /Applications

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Disk Utility can display ______________
A. a disk drive’s capacity
B. a list of partitions on a disk drive
C. the number of files in the system folder
D. the volume format of a mounted partition
E. the number of files on an unmounted partition
F. a graphic with the locations of file fragments on a RAID volume

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Your iMac G5 should be able to connect to a network via a built-in Ethernet connection when it starts up in Safe Mode in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20
Your Macintosh has been exhibiting system problems, so you need to perform troubleshooting and maintenance. Which TWO tasks can you execute from another Macintosh after booting your sysem in Firewire Target Disk Mode?
A. Repair permissions.
B. Partition drive (non-destructive)
C. Enable System Administrator (root) login.
D. Run secure erase to defragment the drive.
E. Use the Repair Disk command in Disk Utility

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
What happens when Mac OS X 10.4’s Safe Relaunch feature sets aside an application’s preference file?
A. It is moved to the Trash
B. It is renamed application.plist.old
C. It is renamed application p.list.saved.
D. It is moved to the ~/Library/Recovered Preferences/folder
E. It is moved to the ~/Library Preferences /Recovered Preferences/folder

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which utility can gather information about a wide range of system components?
A. Setup Assistant
B. System Profiler
C. Keychain Access
D. Internet Connect
E. Network Diagnostics

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
The Console utility.____________________
A. displays log files
B. enables root access
C. invokes the command line D. controls monitor configuration

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which THREE network connections can you troubleshoot using Mac OS X 10.4 Network Diagnostics?
A. AirPort
B. Internal Modem
C. Built-in-Ethernet
D. Built-in-FireWire
E. Bluetooth Modems

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
You should be able to connect to an AirPort network when your iBook starts up in Safe Mode in Mac OS X
10.4.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 11
What is the best way to resolve most application/frameworks mismatches in Mac OS X 10.4?
A. Create a new user
B. Repair permissions
C. Run Software Update
D. Reinstall the application
E. Archive and install Mac OS X

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
On a Mac OS X v10.4 computer you see the message shown in the exhibit. What does this message indicate?

A. A kernel panic has occurred.
B. An application has stopped responding.
C. You have pressed the power button while the computer was powered up.
D. You have connected a bus-powered device that requires more power than is available.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Where can you reset the User Account password?
A. Disk Utility
B. Security system preference
C. Accounts system preference
D. Reset Password from the install disc
E. Login window ‘Forgot Password’ button

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14
You connect a USB device to your Macintosh keyboard, and see an error message that there is not enough power available for this device. Which TWO steps could each resolve this problem?
A. Plug the device into a different USB port on the keyboard.
B. Restart the computer with the USB device still connected.
C. Plug the device into a USB port on the back of the computer.
D. Open System Profiler and search for a corrupted device driver.
E. Connect the device to external power rather than using bus power.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 15
What is required when initially configuring a Bluetooth device, such as a cell phone, to pair with a computer running Mac OS X v10.4?
A. The computer or the device must be set to be Discoverable.
B. The computer and the device must have the sleep function disabled.
C. The computer and the device must be within line of sight of each other.
D. The computer or the device must be set to Require Network Authentication.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
What application includes synchronization software for Bluetooth-enabled cellular phones?
A. iSync
B. Setup Assistant
C. Bluetooth Assistant
D. Bluetooth Serial Utility

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which TWO security options can you configure in the Security preferences?
A. Limit concurrent logins
B. Create Master Password
C. Override Firewall passwords
D. Allow login for admin users only
E. Require password to wake this computer from sleep or screen saver

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
Which statement about FileVault is TRUE?
A. Once a user enables FileVault, it cannot be disabled.
B. FileVault can only be enabled on non-administrator user accounts.
C. When a user enables FileVault, the user’s home directory is transformed into an encrypted disk image.
D. There is no way to recover a user’s data from a FileVault-protected account if the login password is lost.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
The primary role of the Master Password in Mac OS X v10.4 is to let you ________.
A. make changes to Admin user accounts
B. reset the password for a FileVault-enabled account
C. perform remote system installations on your network
D. switch to the System Administrator (root) account on a computer with Fast User Switching enabled

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
You see in Network preferences that the operating system has just updated your network port priority order and port status indicators as shown in the exhibit. What could explain these changes?

A. The network cable has been disconnected.
B. The DHCP server has a new AirPort card installed.
C. An AirPort Base Station has been moved closer to the computer.
D. The DHCP server on the Built-in Ethernet network is no longer available.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
The default network protocol in Mac OS X 10.4 is ___.
A. IPX
B. SMB
C. TCP/IP
D. Netbios
E. AppleTalk
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
The Lookup tool in Network Utility ________.
A. finds the complete route between your computer and another computer on an IP network
B. determines which ports are open on a remote computer
C. resolves host names to IP addresses
D. resolves IP addresses to host names
E. looks up routing table information

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 23
You are troubleshooting a volume connected via target disk mode. What could present a problem?
A. Target disk mode volumes are locked by default.
B. Target disk mode volumes have no file system journal.
C. Keychains and preferences must be unencrypted before they can be viewed.
D. Standard Mac OS X file ownership can be ignored, so files can be deleted accidentally.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
In Mac OS X v10.4, a non-administrator user, Linda, can store her files in ________.
A. /System
B. /Users/linda
C. /Home/linda
D. /Applications

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Disk Utility can display ________.
A. a disk drive’s capacity
B. a list of partitions on a disk drive
C. the number of files in the system folder
D. the volume format of a mounted partition
E. the number of files on an unmounted partition
F. a graphic with the locations of file fragments on a RAID volume
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 26
How do you force a Macintosh computer to start up from a disc in the optical drive?
A. Press and hold the V key while the computer starts up, and enter boot cd at the prompt.
B. Press and hold the C key while the computer starts up.
C. Choose “Restart from Disc” from the Apple menu.
D. Press and hold the power button for 5 seconds.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
While a Mac OS X computer on your network is starting up, its screen displays a gray, spinning globe, similar to the one shown in the exhibit. What does the spinning globe indicate?

A. The computer is unable to locate a valid system folder.
B. The computer is starting up from a network system image.
C. The computer is starting up from a system folder on the local startup disk.
D. The computer is downloading a system update before continuing the start up process.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
You press the power button on a Mac OS X computer, but instead of starting up, its screen displays a folder with a flashing question mark, like the one shown in the exhibit.
What does this indicate?

A. Open Firmware did not find a startup disk.
B. The computer is starting up into Mac OS 9.
C. There are multiple system folders on the startup disk.
D. The computer is starting up from a network system folder.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
When Maria logs in on her Mac OS X v10.4 computer, a utility she recently installed launches and disables the mouse and keyboard. How can Maria prevent the utility from automatically launching when she logs in?
A. Hold down the V key while the computer starts up.
B. Hold down the Shift key immediately after logging in.
C. Hold down the Option key while the computer starts up.
D. Log in as another user, and use Disk Utility to fix permissions on the boot volume.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
How do you start up a Mac OS X computer in single-user mode?
A. Restart while holding down Command-S.
B. Restart while holding down Command-Option-S.
C. Choose “Restart in single-user mode” from the Apple menu.
D. Select Single-User Mode in the Startup Disk preferences, and restart.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
After pressing the power button on your Macintosh you hear three beeps instead of a startup chime. What does this indicate?
A. The monitor is not properly connected.
B. There is a hardware problem, such as bad RAM.
C. The computer was not shut down properly the last time it was used.
D. The computer was unable to locate a disk with a bootable system folder.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Starting up a Mac OS X v10.4 computer in verbose mode is a useful FIRST troubleshooting step when ________.
A. applications are crashing frequently
B. you suspect a font might be corrupted
C. the system repeatedly crashes during startup
D. System Profiler cannot identify the startup device

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which application provides the most detail about system processes in Mac OS X v10.4?
A. System Profiler
B. Activity Monitor
C. Process Manager
D. CPU Monitor Expanded Window

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
You have just completed a default installation of Mac OS X v10.4 (an “easy install”). Which THREE types of applications can run without requiring additional software installations?
A. BSD
B. DOS
C. Java
D. Windows
E. Mac OS 9
F. Native Carbon and Cocoa

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 35
A user is unable to open a document from within an application. Which is NOT a recommended troubleshooting procedure?
A. Try to open a different document with the same application.
B. Double-click the document icon in the Finder, while holding down the Option key.
C. Try to open the document from another application that supports the same document type.
D. Copy the document to the Shared folder, then log in as another user and try to open the document.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 60
Which command can you use to disable finger replies on a perimeter router?
A. The no finger command
B. The no finger reply command
C. The disable finger command
D. The no service finger command

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco routers provide an implementation of the “finger” service, which is used to find out which users are logged into a network device. Although this information isn’t usually tremendously sensitive, it can sometimes be useful to an attacker. The “finger” service may be disabled with the command no service finger.
QUESTION 61
How do you enable the Nagle algorithm on an IOS router?
A. ip nagle
B. service nagle
C. enable service nagle
D. enable ip nagle

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use the global configuration mode command service nagle to enable the TCP congestion Nagle algorithm.
The Nagle algorithm attempts to bunch traffic into fewer TCP packets, thus saving on bandwidth. This
command is disabled by default.

QUESTION 62
Which of the following router commands will prevent a router from giving an attacker a valid IP address via DHCP?
A. no tcp-dhcp-servers
B. no service dhcp
C. no ip dhcp servers
D. no dhcp server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IOS command no service dhcp will prevent the router from responding to DHCP requests on all
interfaces.
You cannot disable only certain interfaces, if you need to allow this service, apply proper ACL’s.

QUESTION 63
What is IP spoofing?
A. altering the source ip address in packets
B. sending large amounts of icmp packets to a broadcast address
C. altering ip routing tables
D. packet sniffing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: An IP spoof is when an attacker changes the source IP address of network packets, usually in attempt to bypass access lists or to DOS the real IP source
QUESTION 64
What is the global IOS command that disables Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) completely?
A. no cdp enable
B. no cdp server
C. no cdp process
D. no cdp start
E. no cdp run

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use the global configuration command no cdp run to disable CDP on all router interfaces. To disable CDP
on an interface basis, go into interface configuration mode and enter no cdp enable.

QUESTION 65
Exhibit:

You are the administrator at Certkiller Inc. and you need to add an ACL statement to protect against address spoofing when applied inbound on the external interface of the perimeter router. Which one of these commands is correct?
A. access-list 101 deny IP 162.16.1.0 0.0.0.255. 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
B. access-list 101 deny UDP 162.16.1.0 255.255.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
C. access-list 101 deny IP 162.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
D. access list 101 permit IP 162.16.1.0 255.255.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
access-list101 deny IP 162.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 0.0.0.0 255 255.255.255 access-list command – command to
deny access to the 162.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 addresses from any address (0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255)

Reference:
Managing Cisco Network Security (Ciscopress) page Appendix C

QUESTION 66
Exhibit: Greg has just started working as the security administrator at Certkiller Inc. His manager asked him to prevent Internet users from pinging the PIX. Which ACL statement should be configured on the external interface of the perimeter router?

A. access-list 102 deny tcp any 162.16.1.1 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 102 permit tcp any 162.16.1.1 0.0.0.0 echo
C. access-list 102 deny icmp any 162.16.1.1 0.0.0.0 echo-reply
D. access-list 102 deny icmp any 162.16.1.1 0.0.0.0 echo

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Echo added to the end of the command implies no ping requests to the PIX.

Reference:
Managing Cisco Network Security (Ciscopress) pages 728

QUESTION 67
Johnthe administrator is working on defending the network against attack. He needs to know which Cisco IOS feature defends against an unauthorized access attempt?
A. IKE
B. IPSO
C. TCP intercept
D. IOS ACLs
E. CBAC

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Access list permits who can enter and leave the network when it is applied to the interface of a perimeter router.
QUESTION 68
Which command will you advice the Certkiller trainee technician to use to apply an access list to a router interface?
A. ip access-list
B. ip access-class
C. ip access-group
D. apply access-list

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco Self-Study CCSP SECUR page 210
QUESTION 69
Which of the following IOS commands will enable turbo access list?
A. turbo acl
B. fast ip acls
C. acl turbo
D. access-list compiled
E. all of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1834/ products_feature_guide09186a0080080374.html#10 19763
QUESTION 70
What are the ACL number ranges for IP standard ACL’s? Select all that apply.
A. 1-99
B. 100-199
C. 1300-1999
D. 800-1299

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IP standard access lists can be numbered from 1-99 or from the expanded range of 1300-1999.

QUESTION 71
Which of the following correctly applies ACL 101 inbound on an interface?
A. ip access-class 101 inbound
B. ip access-group 101 in
C. ip access-list 101 in
D. ip access-range 101 inbound
E. ip access-group 101 inbound
F. ip access-list 101 inbound
G. ip access-class 101 in
H. ip access-range 101 in

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After creating an access list, you must apply it to an interface with the access-group command in interface
configuration mode, and specify the direction to monitor traffic with the in or out keyword.

QUESTION 72
Which of the following can be an IP extended ACL? Select all that apply.
A. ACL 3601
B. ACL 99
C. ACL 1401
D. ACL 100
E. ACL 2101

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An IP extended ACL can be numbered within any of the following ranges: 100-199, 2000-2699.

QUESTION 73
Which of the following commands correctly references access list 120 in a crypto map?
A. Router(config-crypto-map)#match address 120
B. Router(config-crypto-map)#set peer 120
C. Router(config-crypto-map)#set list 120
D. Router(config-crypto-map)#match list 120

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After defining a crypto map, and entering into crypto map configuration, you must specify the hosts
needing encryption by defining those hosts in an access list and referencing that list with the match
address (acl) command.

QUESTION 74
John and Kathy are working on configuring the IOS firewall together. They are figuring out what CBAC uses for inspection rules to configure on a per-application protocol basis. Which one of these is the correct one?
A. ODBC filtering
B. Tunnel, transport models, or both
C. Alerts and audit trails
D. Stateful failover

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: CBAC also generates real-time alerts and audit trails. Enhanced audit trail features use SYSLOG to track all network transactions. Real-time alerts send SYSLOG error messages to central management consoles upon detecting suspicious activity. Using CBAC inspection rules, you can configure alerts and audit trail information on a per-application protocol basis.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1835/ products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a00800 ca7c1.ht
QUESTION 75
You are the security administrator for Certkiller and you need to know what CBAC does on the Cisco IOS Firewall. Which one of these is the best answer?
A. Creates specific security policies for each user at Certkiller Inc.
B. Provides additional visibility at intranet, extranet, and Internet perimeters at Certkiller Inc.
C. Protects the network from internal attacks and threats at Certkiller Inc.
D. Provides secure, per-application access control across network perimeters at Certkiller Inc.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Context-based Access Control (CBAC) examines not only networklayer and transportlayer information, but
also examines the application-layer protocol information (such as FTP information) to learn about the state
of TCP and UDP connections. CBAC maintains connection state information for individual connections.
This state information is used to make intelligent decisions about whether packets should be permitted or
denied, and dynamically creates and deletes temporary openings in the firewall.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1831/
products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a00800 d9815.ht

QUESTION 76
Paul the security administrator is working to fight against DoS attacks. He has a lot of work to do, starting with knowing which three thresholds CBAC on the Cisco IOS Firewall provides against DoS attacks. (Choose three)
A. Number of fully open sessions based upon time.
B. Number of half-open sessions based upon time.
C. Total number of half-open TCP or UDP sessions.
D. Total number of fully open TCP or UDP sessions.
E. Number of fully open TCP-only sessions per host.
F. Number of half-open TCP-only sessions per host.

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Half Open Sessions An unusually high number of half-open sessions (connection requests that are not
completed) could indicate that a DoS attack is occurring or that someone is conducting a port scan. CBAC
measures both the Total number of half-open sessions and the rate of session establishment attempts. It
counts total TCP and UDP half-open sessions and measures the rate of half-open session establishment
once per minute. When the number of existing half-open sessions exceeds the max-incomplete high
number, CBAC deletes half-open sessions as required to accommodate new connection requests. The
software continues to delete half-open requests until the number of existing half-open sessions drops
below max-incomplete low number.

Reference:
Managing Cisco Network Security (Ciscopress) page 273

QUESTION 77
Which of the following represents the aggressive mode of CBAC in Cisco IOS firewall?
A. Delete all half-open session
B. Re-initiate half open session
C. Complete all half open sessions, make the full open session
D. Delete half-open session as needed to accommodate new connection requests

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A TCP SYN attack occurs when an attacking source host generates TCP SYN packets with random source addresses and sends them in rapid succession to a victim host. The victim destination host sends a SYN ACK back to the random source address and adds an entry to the connection queue. Since the SYN ACK is destined for an incorrect or nonexistent host, the acknowledgment is never completed and the entry remains in the connection queue until a timer expires. The connection queue fills up and legitimate users cannot use TCP services. However, with CBAC, TCP packets flow from the outside only in response to traffic sent from the inside. The attacking host can’t get its packets through, and the attack does not succeed. In addition, by inspecting inbound on the external interface (interface serial 0 in the example above), CBAC can account for half-open connections through the firewall and begin closing those half-open connections in an aggressive mode. The firewall will calm down once the number of half-open connections settles down to a user-defined value.
QUESTION 78
What role does CBAC play?
A. CBAC creates a temporary opening in the firewall’s ACLs to allow return traffic and additional data connections for permissible sessions.
B. Nothing.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: CBAC creates temporary openings in ACLs at Cisco IOS firewall interfaces. These openings are created when specified traffic exits your internal network through the Cisco IOS firewall. The openings allow returning traffic that would normally be blocked. The traffic Is allowd back through the Cisco IOS firewall only if it is part of the same session as the original traffic that triggered CBAC when exiting through the Cisco IOS frewall Reference: CCSP SECUR student guide p.237
QUESTION 79
What could be the reason why an authentication attempt to a CSACS for Windows server failed yet no log entries are in the report? (Choose two)
A. the password has expired
B. user enter incorrect password
C. Communication path between the NAS and Cisco Secure ACS server is down
D. User is not defined
E. User belong to a different group
F. CSAuth service is down on the Cisco Secure ACS Server

Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 80
What OSI layers can CBAC filter on? Select all that apply.
A. layer 4
B. layer 3
C. layer 2
D. layer 7

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Access lists can filter traffic based on layer 3 and layer 4 information, while CBAC can filter traffic based on
layer 3, 4, and 7 (application layer) information.

QUESTION 81
By default how long will CBAC monitor an idle TCP session in the state table before deleting the entry?
A. 60 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 20 minutes

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The default CBAC global TCP idle session timeout value is 3600 seconds (60 minutes). This can be
overridden for specific protocols.

QUESTION 82
Which of the following cannot be configured on a router unless the IOS Firewall feature set is installed? Select all that apply.
A. PAM
B. Authentication Proxy
C. IDS
D. CBAC

Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CBAC, PAM, IDS, Authentication Proxy are the four main components of the Cisco IOS Firewall and
cannot be configured until the IOS Firewall feature set is installed on the router.

QUESTION 83
Which of the following access lists is CBAC unable to alter? Select all that apply.
A. ACL 1335
B. ACL 35
C. ACL 135
D. ACL 2335

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CBAC does not alter standard IP access lists. Only an extended access list can be used to get the benefit
of CBAC traffic filtering.

QUESTION 84
By default, after how many half-open sessions need to be in the state table before CBAC will begin to delete the half-open sessions?
A. 500
B. 250
C. 1000
D. 2000
E. 100
F. 50

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, CBAC will begin to delete half-open sessions when there are 500 in the state table. It will keep
deleting half-open sessions until the minimum half-open sessions threshold is met (default is 400).

QUESTION 85
Which of the following encryption protocols can the Cisco IOS Firewall support? Select all that apply.
A. CAST
B. Twofish
C. DES
D. 3DES
E. AES

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Cisco IOS Firewall can support DES (56 bit), 3DES (168 bit), and AES (128, 192, 256 bit) encryption
protocols for VPN tunnels.

QUESTION 86
Which of the following dynamically alters access lists?
A. CBAC
B. IPSEC
C. Kerberos
D. AAA

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CBAC monitors traffic and dynamically alters access lists to allow specified return traffic. CBAC then
dynamically closes the hole(s) in the access list(s) once the session is finished.

QUESTION 87
What is the command to enable logging to all configured destinations (other than the console) on a router?
A. logging facility
B. logging enable
C. logging on
D. logging server
E. logging messages
F. logging enabled

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Enable logging to destinations other than the console port, such as internal buffers, terminal monitor
(telnet/vty line), or a syslog server with the logging on command.

QUESTION 88
How many IDS signatures can the Cisco IOS Firewall scan for?
A. 207
B. 59
C. 426
D. 12

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IDS component of the Cisco IOS Firewall can monitor 59 different IDS signature attacks.

QUESTION 89
Which of the following will happen during the aggressive mode of the CBAC on the Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. CBAC will delete all half-open sessions.
B. CBAC will re-initiate half-open sessions.
C. CBAC will complete all half-open sessions, making them fully open sessions.
D. CBAC will delete half-open sessions as needed to accommodate new connections requests.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 90
Kathy from the security department at Certkiller Inc. wants to know what does a half-open TCP session on the Cisco IOS Firewall mean.
A. Session was denied.
B. Session has not reached the established state.
C. Three-way handshake has been completed.
D. Firewall detected return traffic.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: An unusually high number of half-open sessions (either absolute or measured as the arrival rate) could indicate that a denial-of-service attack is occurring. For TCP, “half-open” means that the session has not reached the established state. For UDP, “half-open” means that the firewall has detected traffic from one direction only.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1831/ products_command_reference_chapter09186a00800 d9806.h
QUESTION 91
What command configures the amount of time CBAC will wait for a TCP session to become established before dropping the connection in the state table?
A. ip inspect global syn-establish (seconds)
B. ip inspect tcp global syn-time (seconds)
C. ip inspect global tcp syn (seconds)
D. ip inspect tcp synwait-time (seconds)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use the IOS Firewall global configuration mode command ip inspect tcp synwait-time (seconds) command
to set the CBAC timeout value for TCP session establishment. The default is 30 seconds.

QUESTION 92
How do you configure the CBAC global UDP idle session timeout?
A. ip inspect udp-session-timeout (seconds)
B. ip inspect udp-idle (seconds)
C. ip inspect udp-timeout (seconds)
D. ip inspect udp idle-time (seconds)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Determine the global UDP idle session state table timeout value with the ip inspect udp idle-time (seconds)
command. This global value (along with the global tcp idle timeout) can be overridden on a per-protocol
basis.

QUESTION 93
How do you set the threshold of half-open sessions CBAC will allow per minute before deleting them?
A. ip inspect one-minute incomplete (number)
B. ip inspect one-minute (number)
C. ip inspect one-minute high (number)
D. ip inspect one-minute high incomplete (number)
E. ip inspect max-incomplete minute high (number)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This command will set the number of new, half-open connections per minute CBAC will allow before
deleting them. The default is 500 per minute.

QUESTION 94
Which of the following commands will alter the CBAC DNS timeout timer to 10 seconds?
A. ip inspect dns-server-timeout 10
B. ip inspect dns-server-timer 10
C. ip inspect dns-timeout 10
D. ip inspect dns-timer 10

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure the time CBAC will keep a DNS session open in the state table, use the global configuration
command ip inspect dns-timeout (seconds). The default is five seconds.

QUESTION 95
If CBAC is configured to inspect telnet traffic on an interface, how should outbound telnet traffic be configured in any ACL’s?
A. outbound telnet should be permitted in any acl’s
B. outbound telnet should be denied in any acl’s
C. telnet should not be referenced at all in the acl
D. outbound telnet should be denied only if inbound telnet is allowed

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ACL’s need to allow the initial outbound traffic. If the traffic is not allowed outbound access, CBAC will not
have a chance to monitor and restrict the return session traffic.

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QUESTION 55
How should a gatekeeper, the Cisco CallManager, and an IP-videoconferencing MCU be configured so that calls can be properly routed when an MCU dials out to the E.164 address of an endpoint?
A. The MCU must register with the Cisco CallManager as an alternate gatekeeper.
B. The MCU must register with the gatekeeper, and the Cisco CallManager must register with the MCU with a
C. 225 trunk.
D. The MCU must register with a H.225 gatekeeper-controlled trunk to the gatekeeper, and the Cisco CallManager must be registered with the gatekeeper.
E. The MCU must register with the gatekeeper, and the Cisco CallManager must register to the gatekeeper with a H.225 gatekeeper-controlled trunk.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
The Acme Roller Skates Company has its corporate HQ in Seattle, with remote sales offices in Denver, Chicago, New York, and Atlanta. The company is in the process of transitioning the H.320 videoconferencing system to an IP videoconferencing system. The company has installed an MCU at the corporate HQ, but the remote offices still have H.320 terminal endpoints. A Cisco IPVC 3526 PRI Videoconferencing Gateway has been installed to allow the remote offices to dial into videoconferences. The telephony provider has given the company a block of 100 phone numbers for the PRI, which can route to all the channels on the PRI. Which method will be best for routing calls from the gateway to the MCU or other endpoints?
A. DID
B. IVR
C. TCS4
D. Default Extension

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
When a H.323 device queries a gatekeeper for a route to a destination E.164 address, to which Cisco CallManager server in a cluster does the gatekeeper send the call?
A. The gatekeeper will use the Cisco CallManager server that is configured with the highest priority.
B. The gatekeeper will send the call to all the active Cisco CallManager servers in the cluster.
C. The gatekeeper will randomly distribute the calls to the Cisco CallManager servers that are defined in the Cisco CallManager group that the trunk will use.
D. The gatekeeper will use the gateway that is configured with the preference of 0 in the gw-priority command.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which two Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express features can be optionally configured to provide automatic voice outdial to attendees? (Choose two.)
A. Outdial can be enabled for any attendee (all profiled users and guests).
B. Outdial can only be enabled systemwide for all profiled users and guests.
C. Outdial can be initiated via the Telephony User Interface, the web “lite” conference room, and the full web-conferencing users.
D. Outdial dial plans are available for system administrators to configure in Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express to provide blocking of any numeric values with unlimited entries for toll fraud control.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Drag drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
A customer is interested in deploying Cisco VT Advantage cameras along with H.323 video room systems at the facility. How should MRGs be configured to support IP phones, Cisco VT Advantage cameras, and
H.323 video room systems with Cisco IPVC 3511 Multipoint Control Units?
A. One MRG would be required to support the IP phones, Cisco VT Advantage cameras, and H.323 video room systems.
B. Two MRGs would be required, one to support IP phones, and one to support Cisco VT Advantage cameras and H.323 video room systems.
C. Three MRGs would be required, one to support IP phones, one to support Cisco VT Advantage cameras, and one to support the H.323 video room systems.
D. Four MRGs would be required, one to support conferencing and transcoding resources, one to support IP phones, one to support Cisco VT Advantage cameras, and one to support H.323 video room systems.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
The Acme Roller Skates Company has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two
conferences occurring as follows:

Conference 1:
three conference participants
transrating 768 kbps to 384 kbps
enhanced continuous presence

Conference 2:
three conference participants
transrating 768 kbps to 384 kbps
multiple conference view (3)

A third conference is desired with the following requirements:

Conference 3:
three conference participants

What will occur when the third conference is attempted?

A. The third conference will succeed as desired.
B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.
C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for three conferences of three people each.
D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide the number of required services.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
One of your customers, a military contractor, is very concerned about security. The customer needs to be able to provide videoconferencing for H.323 endpoints across the IP telephony network; however, the customer must be able to hide the IP addresses of the H.323 endpoints in the video network. Which three technologies allow the customer to provide these functions? (Choose three.)
A. a proxy server and a firewall
B. DNS/WINS
C. an IP-to-IP gateway
D. a directory gatekeeper
E. IPCC
F. a Cisco MCM proxy

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Which parameters represent the recommended Layer 3 QoS settings for videoconferencing traffic?
A. IP precedence 5; PHB AF41; DSCP 33
B. IP precedence 4; PHB AF31; DSCP 34
C. IP precedence 4; PHB AF41; DSCP 33
D. IP precedence 4; PHB AF41; DSCP 34
E. IP precedence 5; PHB AF31; DSCP 34

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
How many streams are required to each participant from the MCU with EMP support, if it is providing the services to transrate from 768 kbps to 384 kbps and to provide continuous presence with text overlay?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which two statements accurately describe the EMP? (Choose two.)
A. It increases the number of voice-activated sessions that are supported.
B. It increases the number of continuous presence layouts.
C. It increases the number of audio-only conference sessions that are supported.
D. It allows the MCU to perform rate matching.
E. It is required for simultaneous support for H.323 and SCCP continuous presence sessions.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit. The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 768
B. bandwidth limit 768
C. bandwidth session 768
D. bandwidth call 768
E. bandwidth zone 768

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
A new site is being planned with video terminals that support a maximum data rate of 768 kbps each. A DS-3 link with 45 Mbps is available for the site. Based on Cisco guidelines, how many video terminals can be placed at this site, considering that no Call Admission Control is available?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
F. 64

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Drag drop A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
When routing to both audio and video devices, with which device does Cisco recommend enabling AAR?
A. Tandberg SCCP endpoint
B. H.323 client
C. IP phone
D. Cisco VT Advantage

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 70
A startup company is designing a converged network, which will include video telephony and H.323 videoconferencing. Which two are key elements of the videoconferencing dial-plan design? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco CallManager trunks
B. zone prefixes
C. gateway service prefixes
D. gatekeeper service prefixes

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Drag drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
The Acme Wakeboards Company is planning to install an IP videoconferencing system. One vendor needs to participate in weekly videoconferences using a H.320 video endpoint at a rate of less than or equal to 512 kbps. All other conference participants are internal staff. Which product should the company install to allow the remote vendor to join into the weekly conference?
A. Cisco IPVC 3511 Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco IPVC 3521 BRI Videoconferencing Gateway
C. Cisco IPVC 3526 PRI Videoconferencing Gateway
D. Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System
E. Cisco IPVC 3544 Chassis

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Which device allows a H.323 video endpoint to establish a conference with a videoconferencing system that is connected to the PSTN?
A. H.225 gateway
B. H.320 gateway
C. H.323 proxy
D. HD gateway

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Refer to the exhibit. The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which two are the most critical network implementation items for installing a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Express MCS in a customer network? (Choose two.)
A. two host names only for both NICs
B. two IP addresses for both NICs
C. two IP addresses on a single NIC
D. one IP address on Ethernet 0
E. one fully qualified domain name fully resolvable by DNS on each of the two Ethernet NICs
F. one fully qualified domain name fully resolvable by DNS for the Ethernet 0 NIC

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups?
A. zones
B. clusters
C. calling search spaces
D. toll bypass routing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Laurens and Tilghman GeneralCom is implementing a Cisco IP Videoconferencing solution that includes a Cisco CallManager and a Cisco IOS Gatekeeper. The customer uses H.323 and H.320 devices exclusively. Video calls will use RTP streams for audio, video, and far-end camera control and a sequence of call control signaling messages. The customer is using the Alt-GK feature to protect the video telephony service from component failures. The customer is concerned that some of the existing H.323 devices may not support Alt-GK. What is the most cost-effective solution that will provide the resilience that the customer desires without upgrading or replacing the existing H.323 devices?
A. Use Hot Standby Router Protocol.
B. Use the gateway as a backup gatekeeper.
C. All H.323 devices support Alt-GK.
D. Cisco CallManager provides the backup gatekeeper function in conjunction with the existing video gateway.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
A company needs to integrate H.323 videoconferencing devices. The gatekeeper that is used must be dedicated to this purpose. What is the term that is used to describe this particular gatekeeper functionality?
A. Cisco IOS Multiservice Gateway
B. Cisco via-zone gatekeeper
C. Cisco Multimedia Conference Manager Gatekeeper
D. intercluster trunk gatekeeper

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

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QUESTION 50
If your IP telephony administrator asks you to configure a local zone for your dial plan to control the volume of calls between two end points in a centralized multisite environment, which two types of Call Admission Control can be implemented? (Choose two.)
A. locations based
B. automated alternate routing
C. gatekeeper based
D. SRST
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager based
Correct Answer: AE Section: Call Admission Control Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Ok
QUESTION 51
Which device is needed to integrate H.320 into the Cisco video solution?
A. video gateway
B. MGCP gateway
C. H.323 gatekeeper
D. MCU

Correct Answer: D Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok
QUESTION 52
Which statement about enrollment in the IP telephony PKI is true?
A. CAPF enrollment supports the use of authentication strings.
B. The CAPF itself has to enroll with the Cisco CTL client.
C. LSCs are issued by the Cisco CTL client or by the CAPF.
D. MICs are issued by the CAPF itself or by an external CA.

Correct Answer: A Section: Questions not in the test Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok (Source: Understanding Cisco IP Telephony Authentication and Encryption Fundamentals) old question!!
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.

IT shows an H.323 gateway configuration in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager environment. An inbound PSTN call to this H.323 gateway fails to connect to IP phone extension 2001. The PSTN user hears a reorder tone. Debug isdn q931 on the H.323 gateway shows the correct called-party number as 5015552001. Which two configuration changes can correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add port 1/0:23 to dial-peer voice 123 pots.
B. Ensure that the Significant Digits for inbound calls on the H.323 gateway configurationis 4.
C. Add a voice translation profile to truncate the number from 10 digits to 4 digits. Apply the voice translation profile to the Voice-port. The configuration field “Significant Digits for inbound calls” is left at default (All).
D. Add the command h323-gatewayvoip id on interface vlan120.
E. Change the destination-pattern on the dial-peer voice 23000 VoIP to 501501 and change the Significant Digits for inbound calls to 4.

Correct Answer: AC Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok.
QUESTION 54
Which two have to be defined in the Forward All field? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. destination
C. partition
D. hunt list

Correct Answer: AB Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok
QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit. With the Mobile Connect feature configured, when the PSTN phone calls the Enterprise user at extension 3001, the Enterprise user’s mobile phone does not ring. Which CSS is responsible for ensuring that the correct partitions are accessed when calls are sent to the Enterprise

A. the gateway CSS
B. the Phone Device CSS
C. the Remote Destination Profile CSS
D. the Remote Destination Profile Rerouting CSS
E. the PhoneLine(DN)CSS

Correct Answer: D Section: Questions not in the test Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok 6-77 CIPT1 (old question!!!)
QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit. You have configured transcoder resources in both an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When you review the configurations in both devices the IP addresses and transcoder names are correct, but the transcoder is failing to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which command needs to be edited to allow the transcoder to register properly?

A. The associate profile anddsp farm profile numbers need to match associate ccm 2 command.
B. The associate ccm 2 priority 1 command needs to be changed so the ccm value matches identifier 1 in the sccp ccm 10.1.1.1 command.
C. Thesccp ccm group number needs to match the associate ccm 2 command.
D. The maximum sessions command must match the number ofcodecs configured under the dsp farm profile.
E. Thesccp ccm group number must match the voice-card number.

Correct Answer: B Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok 3-19, CIPT2
QUESTION 57
Which statement is correct about AAR?
A. The end users sees, “Network Congestion Rerouting?” but AAR is otherwise transparent to the end user and works without user intervention.
B. AAR will display “not enough bandwidth” on the IP phone while it reroutes the call.
C. AAR allows calls to be rerouted because of insufficient Cisco Unified Border Element controlled bandwidth to an ITSP.
D. AAR allows calls to be rerouted due to insufficient gatekeeper controlled IP WAN bandwidth.

Correct Answer: A Section: AAR Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok, CIPT2 3-76
QUESTION 58
The relationship between a Region and a Location is that the Region codec parameter is used between a Region and its configured Locations.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok.
QUESTION 59
An update of the configuration using the Cisco CTL client not needed when _______.
A. a Cisco UnifiedCallManager has been removed
B. an LSC of the IP phone is upgraded
C. a security token is added to the system
D. an IP address of the Cisco TFTP server has been changed

Correct Answer: B Section: Questions not in the test Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
(Source: Configuring Cisco IP Telephony Authentication and Encryption)
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit. A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message “Not Enough Bandwidth” on their phone and hears a fast busy tone. Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.
D. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.

Correct Answer: BF Section: AAR Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok
QUESTION 61
Which statement is not true about GARP?
A. GARP attacks require access to the target LAN or VLAN.
B. GARP can be used for a man-in-the-middle attack.
C. GARP is normally used for HSRP.
D. GARP can be disabled at Cisco IP phones.

Correct Answer: C Section: Questions not in the test Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok – (Source: Hardening the IP Phone) old question!!!
QUESTION 62
Which two statements describe RSVP-enabled locations-based CAC? (Choose two.)
A. RSVP can be enabled selectively between pairs of locations.
B. Using RSVP for CAC simply allows admitting or denying calls based on a logical configuration that is ignoring the physical topology.
C. RSVP is topology aware, but only works with full mesh networks.
D. An RSVP agent is a Media Termination Point that the call has to flow through.
E. RSVP and RTP are used between the two endpoints.

Correct Answer: AD Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok. See 3-51 CIPT2
QUESTION 63
You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in Certpaper.com. You use a remote site MGCP gateway to provide redundancy when connectivity to the central Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is lost. How to enable IP phones to establish calls to the PSTN when they have registered with the gateway? (Choose three.)
A. POTS dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the IP phones to the PSTN.
B. The default service must be enabled globally.
C. The command ccm-manager mgcp-fallback must be configured.
D. COR needs to be configured to disallow outbound calls.

Correct Answer: ABC Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok, check 2-37 and 2-47
QUESTION 64
Which two configurations provide the best SIP trunk redundancy with Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all SIP trunks with DNS SRV.
B. Configure all SIP trunks with Cisco Unified Border Element.
C. Configure all SIP trunks to point to a SIP gateway.
D. Configure SIP trunks to be members of route groups and route lists.
E. Configure all SIP trunks to allow TCP ports 5060.
F. Configure all SIP trunks to point to a gatekeeper through SIP to H.323 gateway.

Correct Answer: AD Section: Sip Trunk Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok, Configure all SIP trunks with DNS SRV.
QUESTION 65
When an external call is placed from Ajax, they would like the ANI that is sent to the PSTN to be the main number, not the extension. For domestic calls, they would like 10 digits sent; for international calls, they would like to send the country code 1 and the 10 digits. How can this be accomplished?
A. Add a translation pattern to the dial peers in the gateway that adds the appropriate digits to the outgoing ANI.
B. In the external call route patterns, set the external phone number mask to the main number. Use 10 digits in the domestic route pattern and 1 followed by the main number digits in the international route patterns.
C. Use a calling party transform mask for each route group in the corresponding route list configuration. Set the explicit 10-digit main number for domestic calls and 1 followed by the main number for the international route patterns.
D. In the directory number configurations, set the prefix digits field to the country code and the 10 digits of the main number. This will be truncated to the 10-digit number for domestic calls and sent out in its entirety for international calls.

Correct Answer: C Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok, only using a calling party transformation mask can be possible.
QUESTION 66
The relationship between a Region and a Location is that the Region codec parameter is combined with Location bandwidth when communicating with other Regions.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Correct Answer: A Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok
QUESTION 67
Video calls using 384 kbps need to be supported across a gatekeeper-controlled trunk. What value should be entered into the gatekeeper to support this bandwidth?
A. 768 kbps
B. 384 kbps
C. 512 kbps
D. 192 kbps

Correct Answer: A Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok see 3-97 CIPT2
QUESTION 68
Enabling authentication and encryption for CTI, JTAPI, and TAPI applications requires which two tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Enter the encryption key into the application.
B. Set up anIPsec association between the application and Cisco Unified CallManager.
C. Configure related security parameters in the CTI, JTAPI, and TAPI application.
D. Add the application user or end users to the Standard CTI Secure Connection user group, Standard CTI Allow Reception of SRTP Key Material user group, and Standard CTI Enabled user group.

Correct Answer: CD Section: Questions not in the test Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok, old question
QUESTION 69
Which two statements about symmetric encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. With symmetric encryption, the encryption key equals the decryption key.
B. Symmetric encryption is commonly used to sign asymmetric keys.
C. Symmetric encryption is a good choice for real-time encryption of bulk data.
D. Symmetric encryption uses asymmetric keys.

Correct Answer: AC Section: Questions not in the test Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok, old question
QUESTION 70
You are the Cisco Unified Communications Manager in Certpaper.com. After you add the Tcl paramspace command, the application can____.
A. set aside memory for application variables
B. access the data on an internal server
C. access the data on an external server
D. share parameters between different call applications

Correct Answer: D Section: Configuration Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ok, it could be an old question.

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QUESTION 31
Which subsystem handles connections between the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Server and the Enterprise Databases?
A. Media
B. JTAPI
C. Database
D. Application

Correct Answer: C Section: 19-36 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 32
If an existing script is uploaded to the Cisco Unified CCX, what does Cisco Unified CCX ask?
A. Do you want to debug the script?
B. Do you want to refresh the script?
C. Do you want to save the application?
D. Do you want to validate the script?

Correct Answer: B Section: 19-36 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 33
What is the purpose of setting the Flush Input Buffer field of the Menu step to true?
A. to release memory held by the prompt variable
B. to clear previously entered input before the Menu step executes
C. to specify if the step can be interrupted by an agent who becomes available
D. to prevent the caller from entering a menu choice before the prompt has played

Correct Answer: B Section: 19-36 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 34
In the Cisco Unified CCX Editor, where do you start the debugger?
A. toolbar
B. Step palette
C. Design window
D. Variable window

Correct Answer: A Section: 19-36 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
During runtime, when a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Timeout
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. No Data

Correct Answer: C Section: 19-36 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 36
In which two ways does remote monitoring allow the monitored call to be selected? (Choose two.)
A. by agent name
B. by agent extension
C. by application ID
D. by media group ID
E. by CSQ ID

Correct Answer: BE Section: 19-36 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 37
In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco Unified CCX system sends standard event logging messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. Win32

Correct Answer: B Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, the customer wants to insert the account number into the account number field in the agenta垯s CRM desktop application. The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record. Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?
A. Cisco Unified CCX Standard
B. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced
C. Cisco Unified CCX Premium
D. Cisco Unified CCX Enterprise
E. Cisco Unified IP IVR

Correct Answer: B Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 39
Which two features are added when upgrading from Cisco Unified CCX Standard to Enhanced? (Choose two.)
A. Agent Routing
B. Historical Reporting
C. Conditional Routing
D. Priority Queuing

Correct Answer: AD Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 40
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. The caller will receive ringing treatment.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in Cisco Unified CCX for overflow.

Correct Answer: B Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 41
In the Expression Editor panel of Cisco Unified CCX Script Editor, what are three reasons to use the Java tab? (Choose three.)
A. to invoke a specified method of a custom Java class
B. to reference a variable of a custom Java Object
C. to pass variables between two different workflows
D. to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer
E. to get a reference to the Contact and Session states
F. to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method

Correct Answer: ABF Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 42
Which three tasks are supported by the Cisco Supervisor Desktop? (Choose three.)
A. Push a web page to an agent’s Cisco Agent Desktop.
B. Chat with an agent.
C. Log in an agent.
D. Change an agent’s state to Ready.
E. Send an email to an agent.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 43
Which feature is available on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express deployments?
A. wrap-up data
B. high availability
C. preview outbound dialer
D. barge-in on Cisco Supervisor Desktop

Correct Answer: A Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 44
Which tool protects Cisco Unified Contact Center Express against worms, day-zero viruses, and other immediate security threats?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. Microsoft Management Console
C. Cisco Security Agent
D. Quality Manager

Correct Answer: C Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 45
Which feature is added when upgrading from the Enhanced to Premium Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. HTTP-based trigger
B. a wrap-up timer
C. keystroke macros
D. supervisory recording
E. agent-to-agent text chatting

Correct Answer: A Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 46
Which interface do the Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified CCX use for call control?
A. AXL
B. HTTP
C. LDAP
D. JTAPI

Correct Answer: D Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 47
When a call terminates, which Cisco Unified CCX setting takes precedence over “Automatic Available” to determine the agent’s next state?
A. Automatic Work
B. Resource Pool selection
C. Prompt for this CSQ
D. Service Level settings

Correct Answer: A Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 48
Which three tasks are supported by the Cisco Unified CCX editor? (Choose three.)
A. Perform reactive debugging without connecting to the Cisco Unified CCX cluster.
B. Save a script in repository.
C. Insert breakpoints in a script.
D. Create final variables.
E. Export a script to XML format.

Correct Answer: BCD Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 49
Which of the following is not an input that is required when you install Cisco Unified CCX?
A. application username
B. platform administrator username
C. IP address
D. default language
E. time zone

Correct Answer: D Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 50
The Cisco Unified CCX license MAC is generated based on which three items? (Choose three.)
A. hostname
B. IP address
C. gateway address
D. physical MAC
E. Cisco Unified CCX version

Correct Answer: ABC Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 51
What is the maximum round-trip time between Cisco Unified CCX servers in a WAN deployment?
A. 2 ms
B. 10 ms
C. 50 ms
D. 80 ms

Correct Answer: D Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 52
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)
A. collect trace files
B. stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C. view syslog messages
D. perform backup and restore functions
E. monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

Correct Answer: ACE Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 53
Which tool is used to size Cisco Unified CCX?
A. Analysis Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool
C. Expert Advisor
D. Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool

Correct Answer: B Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 54
Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. minor release
B. major release
C. service update
D. engineering special

Correct Answer: AB Section: 37-54 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 55
Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified CCX Standard?
A. ICM steps
B. email steps
C. document steps
D. database steps

Correct Answer: C Section: 55-74 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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