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[2020 free] Latest Microsoft 70-487 exam dumps preparation materials to help you pass the exam

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Best Microsoft 70-487 practice tests in 2020

QUESTION 1
You are supporting an application that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework to query and access data.
The latest version of a tool will add new templates and wizards that will enhance developer productivity.
You need to update the tool.
Which Visual Studio 2012 menu item should you choose? (To answer, select the appropriate menu item in the answer
area.)
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
You are developing an ASP.NET Web API action method.
The action method must return the following JSON in the message body.
{” Name “:” Fabrikam”, “Vendor Id”: 9823, “Items”: }
You need to return an anonymous object that is serialized to JSON.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer
area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
You are developing an Internet-based ASP.NET Web API application that manages pet data.
You install an SSL certificate on the web server to encrypt calls to the API. You create a class named PetAuthorization,
which inherits from a type named AuthorizeAttribute, and implements the OnAuthorization() method.
You need to implement basic authentication for the API.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate words to the correct targets in the answer area.
Words may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content)
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
You have two methods named F1 and F2.
F2 takes a sting as a parameter.
You need to create a method named F3. F3 must retrieve a string value asynchronously.
The string must call F2. During the asynchronous load of the string, F1 must run.
Which five code blocks should you use? Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the
correct order.
NOTE: You will not need all of the code blocks.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
You are developing a WCF service in Visual Studio 2013 that integrates with the Microsoft Azure service bus relay.
The Azure service bus namespace is named RestaurantServiceBus
You need to obtain the issuer name and secret.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.)
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
You are developing a library to support multiple ASP.NET MVC web applications on a shared server. The library
provides implementations of security algorithms.
If a problem with any of the security algorithms is discovered, a new version of the library must be created and deployed. Application downtime during the update must be minimized.
You need to ensure that the new version of the library will be used by all applications as soon as possible.
What should you do?
A. Build the web applications and include the security assembly as an embedded resource. When an update is needed,
copy the new assembly to the bin directory for the application.
B. Sign all assemblies in each application with the same key used to sign the security assembly. When an update is
needed, create a new key pair and re-sign all assemblies.
C. Build the security assembly as a netmodule in a shared location. Use the assembly linker to merge the netmodule
into the assemblies for the application. When an update is needed, update the netmodule in the shared location.
D. Install the security assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC). When an update is needed, update the assembly
in the GAC.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Some airlines do not specify the timezone of the arrival time. If the timezone is not specified, then it should be
interpreted per the business requirements.
You need to implement the LoadFlights() and Parse() methods of the BlueYonderLoader class.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location in the answer area. Each
segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.)
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one
correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy an ASP.NET Core web application to Azure App Services. You are using Azure Event Hubs to collect the
telemetry data for the application.
You need to configure Event Hubs to automatically deliver the telemetry data stream to a persistent data store.
Solution: Configure Event Hubs Capture to deliver data to Azure Data Lake Store.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use Azure Blob storage to store the telemetry data.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-capture-overview

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You develop a REST API that uses Node.js. The API will store data in Azure Cosmos DB. You plan to deploy the API to
a new Azure App Services Web App. You create a new Web App by using the Azure portal.
The API must be deployed by using SFTP.
You need to provide the proper deployment credentials to deploy the API.
Solution: Download the. PublishSettings file and enter the username and password located in the file. Does the solution
meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Example:
# Get FTP publishing profile and query for publish URL and credentials creds=($(az webapp deployment list-publishingprofiles –name $webappname –resource- group myResourceGroup \
–query “.” –output tsv)) – -query
“.” –output tsv))
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/scripts/app-service-cli- deploy-ftp

QUESTION 10
You are maintaining a ASP.NET Core web application that uses Entity Framework Core for data access. The application
contains a model class named Student.
You must add a field named FirstName to the class. The field has following requirements:
Use a non-nullable field named FName to store data in a Microsoft SQL Server database.
The data length must be between 2 and 50 characters.
The application user interface must display an error message if the maximum or minimum length requirements are not
met.
You need to implement the FirstName field.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate code segments to use in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q10-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/tutorials/first-mvc-app/validation?view=aspnetcore-2.2

QUESTION 11
You are creating an application that retrieves Microsoft SQL Server data from two tables named Product and
ProductModel.
You need to store in two separate lists all the names of the products and the product models for later use by the
application.
How should you complete the code? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-487 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database.
You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: REPEATABLE READ Specifies that statements cannot read data that has been modified but not yet
committed by other transactions and that no other transactions can modify data that has been read by the current
transaction until the current transaction completes.

QUESTION 13
You need to perform the initial deployment of the web application. You must ensure that the application meets the
performance requirements. Which file should you modify before you deploy the application?
A. the service definition file (.csdef)
B. the application configuration file (app.config)
C. the packages configuration file (packages.config)
D. the Global.asax file (.asax)
Correct Answer: A
You use cscfg file to define various settings related to your cloud application (in ConfigurationSettings section). Like
app.config file, you get to define other things (e.g.number of instances of your cloud application) in the cscfg file. You
could
change the settings in a cscfg file on the fly using either the portal or Service Management API without having to
repackage and redeploy the application.
Scenario: After the initial deployment, any changes to the business logic of the Web API must cause minimal downtime
to the web application in the production environment.

Microsoft Azure and Web Services FAQs

How do I know the exam objectives?

You can find the exam objectives under the “Tested Skills” section of the official 70-487 exam page.– https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-487.aspx

What book is suitable for the 70-487 exam?

“Exam Ref 70-487: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services’.

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CCNP Cloud

Where can I download the latest valid Cisco 300-475 exam PDF dumps?

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  • ACI Design and Configuration
  • APIC Automation Using Northbound API
  • ACI Integration and
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Latest effective 300-475 exam practice questions( free )

QUESTION 1
How can application workload mobility be achieved?
A. By doing nothing, the fabric dynamically detects resource utilization and balances the fabric.
B. Configure a VMM domain and attachable entity profile without provisioning VTEP for mobility.
C. Workload mobility is not supported in ACI.
D. Provision VTEPs to handle live migrations.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two planes are involved in the discovery of hypervisor hosts on the Cisco ACI? (Choose two.)
A. data
B. management
C. control
D. HSRP
E. LLDP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
OpFlex can be used with any tree-based abstract model assuming the tree has what associated with it?
A. API
B. port group
C. URI
D. PR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of the Clos architecture? (Choose two.)
A. improved fabric scalability
B. complicated network design and implementation
C. multiple nonblocking ECMP paths from all leafs
D. limited fabric scalability
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
How many Cisco APIC controllers are required to form a Cisco APIC cluster?
A. three controllers, 3N redundancy
B. two controllers, N+1 redundancy
C. three controllers, N+2 redundancy
D. three controllers, 2N+1 redundancy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
When designing Cisco ACI spine topology, how many spine switches are required?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true regarding APIs? (Choose two.)
A. APIs have full read and write access to the Cisco ACI.
B. APIs provide hardware-based mapping database lookup.
C. APIs provide tenant- and application-aware programmability, automation, and system access.
D. The API only accepts HTTP or HTTPS messages that contain Ruby or XML documents.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which answer accurately describes the fat tree design implemented as part of the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Clos architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to spines. Policies are enforced on leafs and spines.
B. Clos architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to leafs. Policies are enforced on leafs only.
C. Multitier architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to spines. Policies are enforced on spines only.
D. Multitier architecture, Cisco APICs, and hosts connect to leafs. Policies are enforced on leafs only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which best describes the Cisco ACI fabric configuration?
A. manual discovery, manual provisioning, 10- and 40-Gb/s links, Clos design
B. autodiscovery, manual provisioning, 10- and 40-Gb/s links, Clos design
C. autodiscovery, zero-touch provisioning, 40-Gb/s links, Clos design
D. manual discovery, zero-touch provisioning, 40-Gb/s links, Clos design
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
In Cisco ACI, what enables inter-End Point Group communications?
A. contracts
B. subcontracts
C. private VLANs
D. community VLANs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which describes gateway services in the Cisco ACI?
A. Each EPG has a dedicated anycast gateway.
B. All anycast gateways are centrally located on the spine.
C. Each subnet has an anycast gateway configured on the TOR wherever that tenant\\’s bridge domain exists.
D. All anycast gateways are configured on intrusion-detection devices inside the fabric.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two components set up a domain vPC between two leaf switches in the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose two.)
A. vPC peerlink
B. vPC peer keepalive
C. vPC domain
D. vPC protection policy
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
In Cisco ACI, which three statements are true about bridge domains? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge domains can operate in two modes: legacy and normal.
B. Bridge domains can span multiple switches.
C. A bridge domain can contain multiple subnets, but a subnet is contained within a single bridge domain.
D. Subnets can span multiple EPGs; one or more EPGs can be associated with one bridge domain or subnet.
E. Unicast routing is applicable for bridge domains under normal mode.
F. Bridge domain legacy mode allows multiple VLANs per bridge domain.
Correct Answer: BCD

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  4. Online classroom.

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Microsoft Certifications

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Microsoft exam certification information

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Exams | Microsoft Learning: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/dynamics-365-exams.aspx

Exam MB-200: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-mb-200.aspx

Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who have access to the features and functionality of the enterprise licensed product.
As a functional consultant, the candidate is aware of bundled versions of features but does not primarily work with these bundled products.

Candidates are primarily responsible for configuring the system to meet client needs, performing design tasks related to implementing new features and functionality, and implementing and testing system changes.

Skills measured

  • Perform discovery, planning, and analysis (5-10%)
  • Manage user experience design (20-25%)
  • Manage entities and data (15-20%)
  • Implement security (5-10%)
  • Implement integration (15-20%)
  • Perform solutions deployment and testing (25-30%)

Microsoft Certifications MB-200 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You use the Data Performance tool. There are 14
items in the All Data Performance Logs view. Some log items detail positive operational impact percentages while
others
detail negative operational percentages.
Users report that the system is less responsive than in the past.
You need to improve system performance.
Solution: Select optimize for log items that have optimizations available and that have a positive operational impact
percentage.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are a Dynamics 365 system administrator.
You create a custom entity named Stores in a development Sandbox instance. You populate the custom entity with 185
store locations.
You need to migrate the custom entity and data to a Production instance.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct tasks. Each action may be used once, more
than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q2

QUESTION 3
You manage Dynamics 365 instances as shown in the exhibit below.pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q3

You configure EMEA as a new Production instance. The EMEA instance must use the same configuration as the North
America instance. The EMEA instance must not include any data from North America.
You need to configure the EMEA instance by using the Dynamics 365 administration center.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q3-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q3-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/copy-instance

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
You must use Microsoft Flow to create an opportunity from a Microsoft Excel workbook.
You need to ensure Flow will trigger on the Opportunity entity.
What should you do?
A. Enable connections.
B. Add the timeline control.
C. Enable business process flow.
D. Enable change tracking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
Users report that a subgrid from the Onsite Goals custom entity takes a very long time to load on the Account records
page.
You need to improve the query load time and optimize the Onsite Goals entity.
Which action should you perform?
A. In an Internet browser, in the browser options, set the option to retain browser history.
B. In the Data Perform view, use the Optimize functions.
C. In System Jobs, resume paused system jobs.
D. In the Dynamics 365 Diagnostic tool, run the diagnostic test.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator.
A user must be able to view system posts and activities in a dashboard.
You need to create the dashboard for the user.
Which components should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q6-1

QUESTION 7
You manage a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service instance.
You must modify the unit price from two decimal places to four decimal places.
You need to ensure the unit price displays with four digits after the decimal.
What should you configure?
A. Currency Precision to use four decimal places.
B. Base Currency to use four decimal places.
C. Currency field type to whole number.
D. Currency Conversion to use four decimal places.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
On a Contact record, a user creates a note that contains the word running.
One week later, the user reports that they cannot find the Contact record associated with the note.
You need to find the note.
Solution: Use Quick Find search on the Contact entity to search for the word run.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
When a customer case is assigned to a new representative, the system must send an email to the customer to alert
them about the change.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q9-1

QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. Your organization deploys Dynamics 365 for
Outlook.
The sales team reports the following synchronization issues between Dynamics 365 and Outlook:
Microsoft PowerPoint presentations are missing from meeting invitations that are sent from Dynamics 365.
Outlook task lists are not visible in Dynamics 365.
You need to enable system settings to help address these issues.
Which two settings should you enable? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Exchange folder-level tracking.
B. Synchronize appointment attachments with Outlook or Exchange.
C. Synchronize tasks that assigned in Outlook.
D. Go Offline
Correct Answer: BC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/outlook-addin/admin-guide/configure-synchronization-appointments-contacts-tasks

QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You create an app for the sales team.
Members of the sales team cannot access the app.
You need to ensure that sales team members can access the app.
Where should you configure app permissions?
A. Dynamics administration center
B. Manage Roles
C. Dynamics 365 home
D. Security Roles
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/manage-access-apps-security-roles

QUESTION 12
You import data into Dynamics 365 for Customer Service by using the Import Data wizard. Errors occur when you try to
import the following data lines:pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q12

You need to identify the cause of the errors.
What error types have occurred? To answer, drag the appropriate error types to the correct data. Each error type may
be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

pass4itsure mb-200 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
On a Contact record, a user creates a note that contains the word running.
One week later, the user reports that they cannot find the Contact record associated with the note.
You need to find the note.
Solution: Use Categorized Search to search for the word run.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft Business Intelligence

Where to get the latest Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-466 dumps and 70-466 practice test questions and answers | Itcertlab

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-466: Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-466.aspx
This exam is intended for business intelligence (BI) developers who focus on creating BI solutions that require implementing multi-dimensional data models, implementing and maintaining OLAP cubes, and creating information displays used in business decision making.

pass4itsure 70-466 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Build an analysis services multidimensional database (35-40%)
  • Manage, maintain, and troubleshoot a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) database (15-20%)
  • Build a tabular data model (15-20%)
  • Build a report with SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) (25-30%)

Latest Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-466 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
You need to create the KPI in the AdhocReports project. What should you do?
A. Create a measure by using the SUM() expression. Then use the CREATE KPI CURRENTCUBE
statement to define the KPI and target value.
B. Create a measure by using the SUM() expression and create a KPI based on the measure. Then set
the target value.
C. Create a measure by using the COUNT() expression and create a KPI based on the measure. Then
set the target value.
D. Create a KPI based on the OrderQuantity column and then set the target value.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
You are modifying a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube.
Users of the cube report that the precision for the TransactionCost measure is five digits.
You need to ensure that the TransactionCost measure stores values to two digits of precision.
What should you do?
A. Use the FormatString measure property to format TransactionCost as Currency.
B. Add a named calculation in the data source view that casts the data source column to two digits of precision. Bind the
TransactionCost measure to the new column.
C. Add a named query in the data source view that casts the data source column to two digits of precision. Bind the
TransactionCost measure to the new query.
D. Use the MeasureExpression measure property to change the precision of TransactionCost to two digits.
E. Use the FormatString measure property to format TransactionCost as #, ##0.00;- #,##0.00.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
You need to ascertain why Marc did not receive his reports. What should you do?
A. Search the ReportServerService_.log file for errors.
B. Search the registry for errors.
C. Use SQL Server Management Studio to search the SQL Server logs for errors.
D. Use the Windows Event Viewer to search the Application log for errors.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project. The model has tables named Invoice Line
Items and Products.
The Invoice Line Items table has the following columns:
Product Id
Unit Sales Price
The Unit Sales Price column stores the unit price of the product sold.
The Products table has the following columns:
Product Id
Maximum Sales Price
The Maximum Sales Price column is available only in the Products table.
You add a column named Is Overpriced to the Invoice Line Items table. The Is Overpriced column must store a value of
TRUE if the value of the Unit Sales Price is greater than the value of the Maximum Sales Price. Otherwise, a value of
FALSE must be stored.
You need to define the Data Analysis Expressions (DAX) expression for the Is Overpriced column.
Which DAX formula should you use? (Each answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.)pass4itsure 70-466 exam question q4

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 5
You are designing a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report that sources data from a Microsoft Azure SQL
Database database.
The report must display the value and status of a Key Performance Indicator (KPI).
Which report item should you use? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Indicator
B. Data Bar
C. Image
D. Sparkline
E. Gauge
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
You are designing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube.
You need to create a measure to count unique customers.
What should you do?
A. Use role playing dimensions.
B. Use the Business Intelligence Wizard to define dimension intelligence.
C. Add a measure that uses the Count aggregate function to an existing measure group.
D. Add a measure that uses the DistinctCount aggregate function to an existing measure group.
E. Add a measure group that has one measure that uses the DistinctCount aggregate function.
F. Add a calculated measure based on an expression that counts members filtered by the Exists and NonEmpty
functions.
G. Add a hidden measure that uses the Sum aggregate function. Add a calculated measure aggregating the measure
along the time dimension.
H. Create several dimensions. Add each dimension to the cube.
I. Create a dimension. Then add a cube dimension and link it several times to the measure group.
J. Create a dimension. Create regular relationships between the cube dimension and the measure group. Configure the
relationships to use different dimension attributes.
K. Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the IsAggrcgatable property to False and then set the
DefaultMember property. Use a regular relationship between the dimension and measure group.
L. Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the IsAggregatable property to False and then set the
DefaultMember property. Use a many-to-many relationship to link the dimension to the measure group.
M. Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the IsAggregatable property to False and then set the
DefaultMember property. Use a many-to-many relationship to link the dimension to the measure group.
N. Create a dimension with one attribute hierarchy. Set the ValueColumn property, set the IsAggregatable property to
False, and then set the DefaultMember property. Configure the cube dimension so that it does not have a relationship
with the measure group. Add a calculated measure that uses the MemberValue attribute property.
O. Create a new named calculation in the data source view to calculate a rolling sum. Add a measure that uses the Max
aggregate function based on the named calculation.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 7
You are working with a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) instance in native mode. An item role named Reports
Writer is present on the server.
The Reports Writer role cannot view and modify report caching parameters.
You need to ensure that the Reports Writer role can view and modify report caching parameters.
What should you do?
A. Add the Manage all subscriptions task to the Reports Writer role.
B. Add the Manage report history task to the Reports Writer role.
C. Add the View data sources task to the Reports Writer role.
D. Add the Manage individual subscriptions task to the Reports Writer role.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
You are modifying a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube.
The cube consists of a single measure group that contains the following measures:
Total Quantity On Hand
Average Quantity On Hand
The measure group has a single partition that uses the MOLAP storage mode.
You need to modify the cube design to ensure that the Total Quantity On Hand measure is updated in real-time and that
Average Quantity On Hand measure is updated hourly.
What should you do?
A. Create a new measure group for the Total Quantity On Hand measure. Configure the storage mode for the new
measure group\\’s partition to ROLAP.
B. Create a drillthrough action that will query the underlying data source in real time for the Total Quantity On Hand
measure.
C. Change the storage mode of the partition to ROLAP.
D. Add an additional MOLAP partition to the measure group.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
A multinational retailer has retail locations on several continents. A single SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS)
instance is used for global reporting.
A SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance for each continent hosts a multidimensional database named
RetailSales. Each RetailSales database stores data only for the continent in which it resides. All of the SSAS instances
are
configured identically.
The cube names and objects are identical.
Reports must meet the following requirements:
A report parameter named ServerName must be defined in each report. When running a report, users must be
prompted to select a server instance. The report data source must use the Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services data
source
type.
You need to create a data source to meet the requirements.
How should you define the expression that is assigned to the connection string property of the data source?
A. =”Server=” and ParametersIServerName.Value and “; Initial Catalog=RetailSales”
B. =”Data Source=@ServerName; Initial Catalog=RetailSales”
C. =”Data Source=” and Parameters!ServerName.Value and “;Initial Catalog=RetailSales”
D. =”Server=” and Parameters!ServerName.Value
E. =”Server=@ServerName; Initial Catalog=RetailSales”
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project for a Power View solution.
You need to grant permission for salespersons to view only the data based on their sales territory.
What should you do?
A. Create a member and then create a Data Analysis Expressions (DAX) filter.
B. Create a member and then create a Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) filter.
C. Use SQL Server Management Studio to create a role. Then create a Data Analysis Expressions (DAX) filter.
D. Use SQL Server Management Studio to create a role. Then create a Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) filter.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
You are developing a multidimensional project that includes a dimension named Organization.
The dimension is based on the DimOrganization table in the data warehouse.
The following diagram illustrates the table design.pass4itsure 70-466 exam question q11

The Organization dimension includes a parent-child hierarchy named Organizations. The dimension includes the
following dimension attributes:
Organization, which is a key attribute
Organizations, which defines the parent-child hierarchy
Currency Code, which is a regular attribute
When users browse the dimension, three hierarchies are visible to them.
You need to ensure that the Organization hierarchy is not visible to users.
What should you do?
A. Set the AttributeHierarchyDisplayFolder property to Null for the Organization attribute.
B. Delete the Organization attribute.
C. Set the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property to False for the Organization attribute.
D. Set the AttributeHierarchyVisible property to False for the Organization attribute.
Correct Answer: D
The DimensionAttribute.AttributeHierarchyVisible Property gets or sets whether the attribute hierarchy is visible to client
applications. References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/
microsoft.analysisservices.dimensionattribute.attributehierarchyvisible.aspx

 

QUESTION 12
You are modifying a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional database.
You have identified a dimension that is no longer used by any cubes.
You need to delete the dimension.
What should you do?
A. Write a Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) command to drop the dimension from the database.
B. Write a Data Mining Extensions (DMX) command to drop the dimension from the database.
C. Write a T-SQL command to drop the dimension from the database.
D. Delete the dimension by using SQL Server Management Studio Object Explorer.
Correct Answer: D
To delete a dimension in SQL Server Data Tools.
In Solution Explorer, right-click the dimension that you want to delete, and then click Delete.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/multidimensional-models/databasedimensions-modify-or-delete-a-database-dimension-in-solution-explorer

 

QUESTION 13
After you deploy the RegionalSales report, you attempt to configure the subscriptions.
You discover that the subscription creation screen does not display the option to deliver the report by email.
You need to ensure that subscriptions can be delivered by using email.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Rsmgrpolicy.config file.
B. From Central Administration, modify the SMTP settings of the SharePoint Server server farm.
C. Modify the Rssrvrpolicy.config file.
D. From Central Administration, modify the properties of the Reporting Service Application.
Correct Answer: B

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Windows Server 2012

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Exam 70-417: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-417.aspx
This exam is intended for IT professionals who want to validate the skills and knowledge necessary to implement the Windows Server 2012
core infrastructure services. Candidates have already earned a qualifying Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2000,
or Windows XP certification

pass4itsure 70-417 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Exam 70-410

  • Install and configure servers
  • Configure server roles and features
  • Configure Hyper-V
  • Install and administer Active Directory

Exam 70-411

  • Deploy, manage, and maintain servers
  • Configure network services and access
  • Configure a network policy server infrastructure
  • Configure and manage Active Directory
  • Configure and manage Group Policy

Exam 70-412

  • Configure and manage high availability
  • Configure file and storage solutions
  • Implement business continuity and disaster recovery
  • Configure network services
  • Configure access and information protection solutions

Latest Microsoft Windows Server 2012 70-417 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller
named DC1 and a member server named Server1. Server1 has the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature
installed.
On DC1, you configure Windows Firewall to allow all of the necessary inbound ports for IPAM.
On Server1, you open Server Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1

You need to ensure that you can use IPAM on Server1 to manage DNS on DC1. What should you do?
A. Add Server1 to the Remote Management Users group.
B. Modify the outbound firewall rules on Server1.
C. Add Server1 to the Event Log Readers group.
D. Modify the inbound firewall rules on Server1.
Correct Answer: C

pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-1

The exhibit shows (in the details tab) that firewall rules are OK for DNS management (DNS RPC Access Status
Unblocked) But it shows too that Event log Access Status is blocked (which by the way blocks the IPAM Access Status)
=> We should solve this by adding the Server1 computer account to the Event Log Readers group Understand and
Troubleshoot IP Address Management (IPAM) in Windows Server 8 Beta (download.microsoft.com) IPAM Access
Monitoring

pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-2

IPAM Access Settings Manual provisioning For manual provisioning, ensure that the required access settings are
appropriately configured on the target server manually. Verify Access Verify that IPAM access status is listed as
unblocked indicating that manual or GPO based provisioning is successfully complete. For the IPAM access status
value to be allowed, all of the access sub-states shown in the details pane should be marked as allowed. These access
states are: DNS RPC access status DHCP RPC access status Event log access status DHCP audit share access status
Troubleshooting Access Issues If any of the access sub-states for managed server roles is showing in the Blocked
state, check that the corresponding setting is enabled on the target server. For details of access setting to sub-state
mapping refer to the IPAM Access Monitoring section in this guide. For GPO based provisioning, the GPResult
command line tool can be used to troubleshoot group policy update issues. The provisioning task setup by IPAM DHCP
and DNS GPOs creates a troubleshooting log in the location%windir%\temp named IpamDhcpLog.txt and
IpamDnsLog.txt respectively. http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/winserver8gen/thread/c882c077
-61bd45f6-ab47-735bd728d3bc/ IPAM -Unblock access to a DC? The process to manually (not GPO based) unblock a
DNS/DC server is:

pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-3

1.
Enable DNS RPC access by enabling the following inbound Firewall rules:
a) DNS Service (RPC)
b) DNS Service (RPC Endpoint Mapper)
2.
Enable remote management access by enabling the following inbound Firewall rules:
a) Remote
b) Service Management (RPC)
b) Remote Service Management (RPC-EPMAP)
3.
Enable Remote Event Log Management RPC access by enabling the following inbound
Firewall rules:
a) Remote Event Log Management (RPC)
b) Remote Event Log Management (RPC-EPMAP)
4.
Add the IPAM machine acct to the Event Log Readers domain security group. See the example below.
This view is from Active Directory Users and Computers \contoso.com \Builtin \Event Log Readers:

pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-4 pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q1-5

Also, there should be a Details tab at the bottom that summarizes whether or not the correct firewall ports and the Event
Log Access status are unblocked
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj878313.aspx

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server
2012 R2.
You pre-create a read- only domain controller (RODC) account named RODC1. You export the settings of RODC1 to a
file named File1.txt.
You need to promote RODC1 by using File1.txt.
Which tool should you use?
A. The Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
B. The Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet
C. The Dism command
D. The Dcpromo command
E. The Install-ADDSDomainController cmdlet
Correct Answer: D
DCPromo is gone, HOWEVER, it is still used for unattend installations using unattended files. This allows administrators
the chance to get used to using powershell commands instead of the unattended file.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh472162.aspx NB: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj205467.aspx
Install-WindowsFeature Installs one or more Windows Server roles, role services, or features on either the local or a
specified remote server that is running Windows Server 2012 R2. This cmdlet is equivalent to and replaces Add-
WindowsFeature, the cmdlet that was used to install roles, role services, and features in Windows Server 2008 R2. So
the 2 first answers are the same and we only have one choice here…

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains domain controllers that
run Windows Server 2008 Service Pack 2 (SP2), Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1), Windows Server
2012, and Windows Server 2012 R2.
A domain controller named DC1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 is backed up daily.
During routine maintenance, you delete a group named Group1.
You need to recover Group1 and identify the names of the users who were members of Group1 prior to its deletion. You
want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?
A. Perform an authoritative restore of Group1.
B. Mount the most recent Active Directory backup.
C. Use the Recycle Bin to restore Group1.
D. Reactivate the tombstone of Group1.
Correct Answer: A
The Active Directory Recycle Bin does not have the ability to track simple changes to objects. If the object itself is not
deleted, no element is moved to the Recycle Bin for possible recovery in the future. In other words, there is no rollback
capacity for changes to object properties, or, in other words, to the values of these properties.
There is another approach you should be aware of. Tombstone reanimation (which has nothing to do with zombies)
provides the only way to recover deleted objects without taking a DC offline, and it\\’s the only way to recover a deleted
object\\’s
identity information, such as its objectGUID and objectSid attributes. It neatly solves the problem of recreating a deleted
user or group and having to fix up all the old access control list (ACL) references, which contain the objectSid of the
deleted object.
Restores domain controllers to a specific point in time, and marks objects in Active Directory as being authoritative with
respect to their replication partners.

QUESTION 4
You administer an Active Directory Domain Services forest that includes an Active Directory Federation Services (AD
FS) server and Azure Active Directory. The fully qualified domain name of the AD FS server is adfs.contoso.com.
You must implement single sign-on (SSO) for a cloud application that is hosted in Azure. All domain users must be able
to use SSO to access the application. You need to configure SSO for the application.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use the Azure Active Directory Synchronization tool to configure user synchronization.
B. Use the AD FS Configuration wizard to specify the domain and administrator for the Azure Active Directory service.
C. Create a trust between AD FS and Azure Active Directory.
D. In the Azure management portal, activate directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/hh967643.aspx https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/jj205461.aspx

QUESTION 5
You have a Direct Access Server named Server1 running Server 2012. You need to add prevent users from accessing
websites from an Internet connection.
What should you configure?
A. Split Tunneling
B. Security Groups
C. Force Tunneling
D. Network Settings
Correct Answer: C
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/tomshinder/2010/03/30/more-on-directaccess-split-tunneling-and-force-tunneling/

QUESTION 6
Your network contains two DNS servers named DNS1 and DNS2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. DNS1 has a
primary zone named contoso.com. DNS2 has a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
You need to log the zone transfer packets sent between DNS1 and DNS2. What should you configure?
A. debug logging from DNS Manager
B. logging from Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
C. monitoring from DNS Manager
D. a Data Collector Set (DCS) from Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: C
Monitoring DNS with the DNS Console
The DNS management console includes functionality that enables you to use the console to monitor DNS activity:
*Event Logging tab: You can access the Event Logging tab located within the Properties dialog box of the DNS server to
specify the DNS events that you want to monitor. Through the Event Logging tab, you can limit the events which are
written to the DNS Events log.
*Monitoring tab: The Monitoring tab is also located within the Properties dialog box of the DNS server. This tab allows
you to test querying of the DNS server.
References:

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1).
Both servers are member servers.
On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server
Manager.
You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager.
Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. (Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemoting cmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.psl script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfiguration cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
Correct Answer: BD
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell
On the computer that you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the following, and then press Enter.
Set-ExecutionPolicy –ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D)
Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall rule exceptions.
Configure-SMRemoting.ps1 -force –enable (B)
References: https://msandbu.wordpress.com/2012/08/26/administer-other-windows-server-from-server-manager-2012/

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain
controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are
configured as shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q8

Active Directory Recycle Bin is enabled.
You discover that a support technician accidentally removed 100 users from an Active Directory group named Group1
an hour ago.
You need to restore the membership of Group1.
What should you do?
A. Perform an authoritative restore.
B. Perform tombstone reanimation.
C. Modify the isDeleted attribute of Group1.
D. Apply a virtual machine snapshot to DC2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your network contains 25 Web servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure auditing policies that meet the following requirements:
Generate an event each time a new process is created.
Generate an event each time a user attempts to access a file share.
Which two auditing policies should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate two auditing policies in the answer
area.
A. Audit access management (Not Defined)
B. Audit directory service access (Not Defined)
C. Audit logon events (Not Defined)
D. Audit object access(Not Defined)
E. Audit policy change(Not Defined)
F. Audit privilege use (Not Defined)
G. Audit process tracking (Not Defined)
H. Audit system events(Not Defined)
Correct Answer: DG
Audit Object Access
Determines whether to audit the event of a user accessing an object (for example, file, folder, registry key, printer, and
so forth) which has its own system access control list (SACL) specified.
Audit Process Tracking
Determines whether to audit detailed tracking information for events such as program activation, process exit, handle
duplication, and indirect object access.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc976403.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc976411.aspx

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an organizational unit
(OU) named AHServers.OU.
You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP01 to AllServer.OU. GPO1 is configured as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)pass4itsure 70-417 exam question q10

You need to ensure that GPO1 only applies to servers that have Remote Desktop Services (RDS) installed. What
should you configure?
A. Item-level targeting
B. WMI Filtering
C. Security Filtering
D. Block Inheritance
Correct Answer: B
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filters allow you to dynamically determine the scope of Group Policy
objects (GPOs) based on attributes of the target computer. When a GPO that is linked to a WMI filter is applied on the
target computer, the filter is evaluated on the target computer. If the WMI filter evaluates to false, the GPO is not
applied. If the WMI filter evaluates to true, the GPO is applied.

QUESTION 11
You have a group managed Service Account name Account01. Only three servers named Server01, Server02 and
Server03 are allowed to use Account01 service account. You plan to decommission Server01. You need to prevent
Server01 from using the Account01 service account. The solution must ensure that Server02 and Server03 continue to
use the Account01 service account.
What command should you run?
A. Set-ADServiceAccount
B. Uninstall-ADServiceAccount
C. Remove-ADServiceAccount
D. Reset-ADServiceAccountPassword
Correct Answer: D
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee617190.aspx https://www.petri.com/restrict-privileged-accounts-with-authentication-silos-in-windows-server-2012-r2

QUESTION 12
Your role of Network Administrator at ABC.com includes the management of the Active Directory Domain Services (AD
DS) domain named ABC.com. The network includes servers that run Windows Server 2012.
The network includes virtual machines (VMs) running on Windows Server 2012 Hyper-V host servers.
A Hyper-V host server named ABC-HV01 hosts several VMs for customers of the business. ABCHV01 has 64 GB of
RAM, 4 network adapters and 4 hex-core processors. To enable accurate billing for customers, you need to measure
the
resource usage of the VMs running on the ABC-HV01.
You need a way of measuring the following:
Average CPU usage.
Minimum, Maximum and Average physical memory usage.
Amount of disk space allocated to a virtual machine.
Total incoming and outgoing network traffic for a virtual network adapter.
What should you do?
A. You should configure Port Mirroring.
B. You should configure Resource Metering.
C. You should configure Single-root I/O virtualization.
D. You should configure Integration Services.
E. You should configure Resource control.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Your network contains a Hyper-V host named Hyperv1. Hyperv1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Hyperv1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. All of the virtual machines run Windows Server
2008 R2.
You need to view the amount of memory resources and processor resources that VM4 currently uses.
Which tool should you use on Hyperv1?
A. Task Manager
B. Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM)
C. Hyper-V Manager
D. Resource Monitor
Correct Answer: C

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648-244 – Learning Material – 59492 – The Cisco Learning Network: https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/59492

Latest effective Cisco APE 648-244 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this
storage OVA template? (Choose two.)A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 14
What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which one is not a parameter to generate the License MAC?
A. NIC duplex
B. IP mask
C. SMTP location
D. time zone
E. SNMP community
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command is used to apply a new identity to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher?
A. utils import afg
B. utils import config
C. utils import xml
D. utils ident new
E. utils ident config
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which two applications support the New Identity feature? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition
C. Cisco Unity Connection
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In a 100-user Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, what is the utilization of the CPU and memory during business hours in normal operation?
A. 10 percent
B. 17 percent
C. 26 percent
D. 31 percent
E. 37 percent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
When monitoring a host server’s resource utilization, what is the default timeframe to refresh the data in the utilization view?
A. real time
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. manual refresh
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command is used to power down a Cisco Unified Communications applications server?
A. utils server shutdown
B. utils system close
C. utils system shutdown
D. config server shutdown
E. config system shutdown
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
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APE

Easily get Cisco APE 648-232 exam questions and Answers

Welcome to Itcertlab! Download the latest Cisco APE 648-232 PDF Exam dump and online 648-232 exam exercises, share 30 of the latest exam questions and answers for free, and easily pass the 648-232 exam: https://www.pass4itsure.com/648-232.html (Q&As: 50)

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Is there any learning material for 648-232? – 99889 – The Cisco Learning Network: https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/99889

Latest effective Cisco APE 648-232 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which group of administrative reports includes usage reports for Training Center, Support Center, and Event Center?
A. common usage reports
B. IM reports
C. Enterprise Edition reports
D. IM activity reports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What should customers do to make a branding request?A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How will the branding be displayed if you join a meeting on another company site?
A. It will show in text format only.
B. Branding will not be shown.
C. It will be shown by using two-level branding.
D. It will be shown using default settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
The WebEx event window has six principal interface areas. Drag and drop the area on the left to its function on the right.
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QUESTION 28
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QUESTION 29
Drag the implementation process on the left with its task on the right.
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QUESTION 30
Which description matches the steps involved in escalating WebEx issues? Drag the step on the left to its description on the right.
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CCNP Data Center

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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Data Center 642-999 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which component is unsupported by the UEFI boot device in the Cisco UCS C-series standalone?
A. FlexFlash card
B. RAID array
C. FCoE
D. iSCSI
E. USB
F. PXE
G. PCI SSD
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 2
Which technology makes VM-FEX possible?
A. VXLAN
B. VNTAG
C. VPC
D. DVS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of ports on a VMware vCenter Distributed Virtual Switch?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 1024
D. 4096
E. 8192
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which option lists the features that are needed to install VMware ESXi on a local drive from an image file?
A. Virtual Media and VMFS
B. Virtual Media and Virtual KVM
C. Virtual Boot and VMFS
D. Virtual KVM and Virtual Boot
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS
Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button.pass4itsure 642-999 dumps-(5) pass4itsure 642-999 dumps-(5-1) pass4itsure 642-999 dumps-(5-2)

Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. Which of the following user roles allows the permission Clear
All Logs?
A. read-only
B. user
C. operator
D. system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which destination(s) are valid for syslog messages for a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect?
A. a file and monitor only
B. the log, the monitor and syslog queue
C. the console
D. the console and log only
E. a file
F. the console, the monitor, and a file
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about Cisco VM-FEX dynamic vNIC configuration and provisioning by using the Cisco UCS Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by using SNMP.
B. Dynamic vNIC parameters must be configured manually before the virtual machine connects to its port group.
C. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured dynamically after the assigned virtual machine connects to the port group.
D. Dynamic vNIC parameters are enabled by using the Fibre Channel Forwarder protocol.
E. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by inheriting the port-group parameters of the associated virtual machines.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which three items represent message formats that are available to send fault data using Cisco Call Home? (Choose three.)
A. short text
B. long text
C. HTML
D. SOAP API
E. XML
F. Java
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco Integrated Management Controller support for managing standalone Cisco UCS -Series servers? (Choose two.)
A. SoL
B. IPMI
C. IPMIv2D. SMASH CLP
E. SNMPv3
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about default settings for fabric interconnect uplink ports are true? (Choose three.)
A. When a VLAN is configured, it is trunked on all uplinks.
B. Specific VLANs are trunked on specific uplinks.
C. UDLD is enabled.
D. UDLD is disabled.
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled.
F. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled.
G. They connect to the I/O modules.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
Which authentication provider requires a custom attribute?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. local authentication
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco UCS firmware are contained in the Cisco UCS Infrastructure software bundle? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco UCS BIOS
B. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects firmware
C. Cisco UCS adapters
D. Cisco UCS Manager
E. Cisco I/O module firmware
F. Cisco IMC
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which options are valid port types when configuring fixed 10-Gb LAN interfaces on the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects? (Choose three.)
A. monitoring port
B. server port
C. uplink Ethernet port
D. FEX port
E. Fibre Channel storage port
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 14
Which slot(s) contain DIMMs in a 1DPC configuration on Cisco UCS blade server?
A. 0
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You plan to use AAA security services for a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect. Which two authentication providers can you use? (Choose two.)
A. Kerberos
B. RADIUS
C. NTLM
D. Diameter
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 16
When implementing a Cisco UCS C-series standalone server, which of the following Cisco Integrated Management Controller NIC modes allow use of the least number of physical ports while providing maximum levels of redundancy?
A. dedicated
B. shared LOM
C. shared LOM 10G
D. Cisco VIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which three items are supported operating systems of the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle Solaris 11
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 SP3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
E. Ubuntu Server 12.2
F. SLES 11
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 18
Which scheduling option sets the number of tasks that can be run?
A. max number of concurrent tasks
B. max changes
C. max number of tasks
D. max configuration requests
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
When upgrading a standalone Cisco UCS C-Series server, which method is correct?
A. direct upgrade on all components
B. Cisco Hardware Upgrade Utility
C. Cisco Host Upgrade Utility
D. Cisco Server Upgrade Utility
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco VSM VM
B. VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C. VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E. VMware vCenter server
F. Fibre Channel VMFS volumeCorrect Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which port type mode must be used on a Cisco UCS Manager for a SPAN port?
A. eth-traffic-mon
B. eth-uplink
C. eth-server
D. eth-storage
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 23
What is true statement concerning port personalities on the Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnect?
A. Fibre Channel uplink ports must operate in Fibre Channel switching mode.
B. The fabric interconnects use native FCoE storage ports to directly attach to the SAN infrastructure.
C. By default, all Fibre Channel ports are unconfigured.
D. The Fibre Channel uplink ports do not support VSAN trunking and Fibre Channel port channels.
E. The Fibre Channel storage ports support VSAN trunking and Fibre Channel port channels.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
The Cisco UCS administrator has the chassis discovery policy set to “2-link”. The administrator connects a new chassis to the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects using four links. Which option about link utilization is true?
A. The Cisco UCS will use two links until the chassis is reacknowledged, after which it will use all four links.
B. The Cisco UCS will use all four links for discovery.
C. The Cisco UCS will use only two links. The other two links are unusable.
D. The Cisco UCS will use only two links. However, the administrator can manually pin traffic to the extra links by using service profiles.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Cisco 300-550 exam dumps Exam Practice | 100% Free

Are you still searching for Cisco 300-550 dumps exam? The Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist (300-550 NPDESI) exam tests related to Network programmability fundamentals, APIs and automation protocols, data models, operations, and controllers. This 90 minutes exam consists of 65 – 75 questions and covers Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist certifications. The pass4itsure 300-550 dumps pdf NPDESI certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist
Exam Number: 300-550
Associated Certifications: CCIE Routing & Switching
Duration: 90 minutes (65 – 75 questions)
Available Languages: English

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Pass4itsure offers the latest Cisco 300-550 practice test free of charge (28Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-550 question
To make this code work properly, which tine of code should you insert at the blank line?
A. r = requests.get(url, headers=header, verify-False)
B. r = requesis.post(url, data:payload, headers:header, verify:False)
C. r = requests.post(url, data=payload, headers=header, verify=False)
D. r = requests(method=’POST’, url, data=payload, headers=header. verify=False)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You want to implement a new feature in a home-grown network automation tool. Because your development team uses the Agile development methodology, which documentation must you create for them, in order to put this feature on the
roadmap?
A. ROI analysis
B. case study
C. user story
D. SCIPAB breakdown
E. enhancement request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two parts are required for a RESTful API call? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. parameter
C. method
D. query
E. fragment
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-550 question
Which action effectively secures the controller?
A. Enable HTTP to HTTPS redirect.
B. Require complex passwords.
C. Use NAT on the router before the controller.
D. Blacklist the public WAN.
E. Whitelist the Admins network and block all others.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-550 question
A network engineer created a Bash script to automate some network device tasks. What are two potential risks when a network operator runs this script as written? (Choose two.)
A. The script results in network devices losing connectivity.
B. The script executes too slowly.
C. The script configures unintended commands.
D. The script exposes users’ passwords.
E. The script passes configuration data in cleartext.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which tool streamlines the development of network applications?
A. Java Runtime Engine
B. software development kit
C. command-line interface
D. General Public LicenseE. package management system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two node types in a YANG data model? (Choose two.)
A. grouping
B. leaf
C. container
D. module
E. instance
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Where is the node-ui.log stored on the Cisco APIC-EM appliance?
A. in the /var/Iog/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the container that is running the node-ui instance
B. in the Cassandra database instance that is running within the container that is running the node-ui instance
C. in the /opt/CSCOapicem/logs/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
D. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root
E. in the Cisco APIC-EM Cassandra database instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement is used to associate a submodule and a parent module in a YANG data model?
A. import
B. namespace
C. include
D. belongs-to
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You can use Visore to accomplish which task?
A. Monitor faults and events by using a subscription model.
B. Read object properties and information.
C. Update any properties of an object that are not read-only.
D. Update any properties of an object.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A web service returns a JSON object to your Python script. What is the most logical object in which to store the JSON response?
A. an integer
B. a dictionary
C. a tuple
D. a string
E. a list
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-550 question
Which Linux command provides output that is similar to the output in the exhibit?
A. cat /etc/hosts
B. tcpdump -a
C. ifconfig -av
D. netstat -an
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the main benefit of having an out-of-band management network for an infrastructure controller?
A. Data plane disruption is less likely.
B. It provides separation of the management and data planes.
C. Configuration of the controller is faster and simpler.
D. It is less expensive.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which field in Visore can you use to find a unique instance of a managed object?
A. IcOwn
B. dn
C. class name
D. classld
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which communication mechanism does NETCONF use?
A. SOAP over HTTPS
B. YAML over SSH
C. YAML over HTTPS
D. RPC over SSH
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Management protocols like NETCONF access network elements on well-known ports. Which design practice hardens a network device implementation?
A. Specify the source interface for SSH.
B. Limit access to port 830, well-known clients, and SSH VTY.
C. Enable CoPP.
D. Configure ip http secure-server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two protocols are examples of southbound APIs? (Choose two.)
A. VXLAN-GPE
B. LLDPC. NETCONF
D. IPFIX
E. SYSLOG
F. OpFlex
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 18
Which two northbound protocols are supported by the Cisco NSO Controller? (Choose two)
A. REST
B. SOAP
C. OpenFlow
D. NETCONF
E. PCEP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Which statement about shading in ACI is true?
A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent “split-brain” scenarios in ACI.
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC.
C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a Cisco APIC cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
After completing the OSC setup wizard, the configuration does not get applied. Which two log files should you check to determine the errors that occurred? (Choose two.)
A. /var/log/node_config_state.log
B. /var/log/platform_services.log
C. /var/log/ansible.log
D. /var/log/messages.log
E. /var/log/controller.log
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 21
YANG modeling supports which two comment styles? (Choose two.)
A. A block comment is enclosed within “<–” and “–>”.
B. A single-line comment starts with “#” and ends at the end of the line.
C. A single-line comment starts with “!” and ends at the end of the line.
D. A block comment is enclosed within “/*” and “*/”.
E. A single-line comment starts with “//” and ends at the end of the line.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?
A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which statement about NX-API REST is true?
A. Configuration and state information is stored in the MIT.
B. NX-API REST requires a commercial license to enable.
C. Partial commits are supported.
D. Fault objects may be queried, but event objects cannot be queried.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the protocol on the left to its purpose in ACI fabric discovery on the right
pass4itsure 300-550 question

QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the HTTP status code number on the left to the corresponding status code name on the right.
pass4itsure 300-550 question

QUESTION 26
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the tools on the left to their corresponding functions on the right.
pass4itsure 300-550 question

QUESTION 27
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the network automation protocol on the left to the transport protocol that it supports on the right. Some options are used more than once
pass4itsure 300-550 question

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the protocol on the loft to its correct description on the right.
pass4itsure 300-550 question

Cisco 300-550 Dumps Recommended Training

The following courses are the recommended training for this exam:

  • Designing and Implementing Cisco Network Programmability (NPDESI) v1.0 – Self-paced E-Learning
  • Designing and Implementing Cisco Network Programmability (NPDESI) – Instructor-led Training

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

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The 300-550 (NPDESI) Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist exam is a 90-minute, 55-65 question assessment that is associated with the Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist certification. This pass4itsure 300-550 dumps exam tests a candidate’s knowledge related to Network programmability fundamentals, APIs and automation protocols, data models, operations, and controllers. A candidate is tested on knowledge of Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist course maintenance.
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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about Cisco Validated Designs and Smart Business Architectures are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Validated Designs provide proven design of solutions that include only Cisco products and thus
ensure single-vendor solutions.
B. Cisco Validated Designs are end-to-end designs that are well-tested and fully documented.
C. Smart Business Architecture guides are available for enterprise-sized deployments only.
D. Smart Business Architecture is a blueprint for delivering the three Cisco architectures in a modular
approach.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which description of the Cisco Collaboration architecture is true’?
A. a flexible network framework designed to enable integration with the collaboration requirements of the
customer
B. a flexible collaboration framework designed to support any customer and any user collaboration needs
C. a collaboration framework designed to support the collaboration needs of a typical large enterprise
D. a collaboration framework designed to integrate the existing customer collaboration functionalities with
Cisco network infrastructure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which option is a key challenge for customers and their IT teams caused by the evolution of
communication tools?
A. skills of the IT teams
B. keeping the organizational structure unchanged while adapting to new collaboration solutions
C. fragmentation and complexity of collaboration tools
D. time for implementation of collaboration hardware
E. managing infrastructure that is not based on Cisco Collaboration
F. costs of collaboration
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two operational benefits are provided by Cisco Business Edition 6000 virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. reduced risk because each application runs on a separate physical server
B. reduced costs through integrated management and a scalable platform
C. time savings through easy platform management
D. support for multiple management platforms
E. reduced costs through support for traditional TDM-based voice systems
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which four companies are the strongest Cisco competitors in the area of unified communications and
collaboration? (Choose four)
A. Juniper
B. Avaya
C. Siemens – UnifyD. ZTE
E. Mitel
F. Brocade
G. Microsoft
H. HP
Correct Answer: BCGH

QUESTION 6
In which two ways does Cisco Business Edition 6000 deployment mitigate and reduce business risk?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco proprietary communications protocols mitigate the risk of interoperability with other collaboration
devices from other vendors.
B. Cisco Collaboration architecture supports all major operating systems and devices, which minimizes
the risk of a device not being supported
C. Cisco Jabber uses a consistent user interface on all devices. Change of devices does not impact user
acceptance.
D. End-to-end, the Cisco Collaboration solution eliminates the risk that the applications and devices of
other vendors will not be supported.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which three Cisco Collaboration applications are supported on the Cisco BE6000M and H platforms?
(Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
B. Cisco Expressway
C. Cisco Unity Connection
D. Cisco Data Virtualization and Data Federation
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 8
Which three collaboration methods are addressed directly by Cisco Collaboration solutions? (Choose
three.)
A. dispersed workforce
B. trust at a distance
C. social media collaboration
D. structured meetings
E. team collaboration
F. find and connect
G. persistent chat
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco online resource provides partners with the most comprehensive set of Cisco BE6000 sales
materials that are aligned to the sales cycle?
A. Cisco Selling Collab Portal
B. Cisco Business Edition 6000 Product home page
C. Cisco Promotions and IncentiveD. Cisco BE6000 Partner Sales Guide
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What value does Cisco Business Edition 6000 bring to midmarket businesses?
A. enhanced collaboration functionalities by adding only few additional servers
B. affordable, advanced collaboration functionalities on a single server
C. colocation with the existing telephony system
D. adds video collaboration capabilities on top of the existing telephony system
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which three options are important functionalities of Cisco WebEx? (Choose three.)
A. support for third-party platforms
B. mobile, Windows, Mac, and TV clients
C. storage space for documents
D. high-definition audio and video
E. document, application, and screen sharing
F. on-premises, cloud, and hybrid deployment
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 12
How many devices are supported by the Cisco BE6000S model?
A. 2500
B. 1000
C. 300
D. 150
Correct Answer: A

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